NCCT Practice Test A

1. WHAT INJECTION ANGLE SHOULD YOU USE FOR INTRAMUSCULAR?
A. 45
B. 10
C. 90

2. NORMAL B/P FOR AN ADULT?
A. 160/90
B. 120/80

3. A LATIN TERM SIGNIFYING A PERSON IS NOT OF SOUND MIND
A. RES GESTAE
B. NON COMPOS MENTIS

4.  ANOTHER WORD FOR VISIT
A. ENCOUNTER
B. APPOINTMENT

5.  WHEN ANSWERING THE PHONE YOU SHOULD ALWAYS ANSWER BY WHAT RING?
A. 1ST
B. 2ND
C. 3RD

6.  WORD PART ECTOMY MEANS?
A. SURGICAL REPAIR
B. SURGICAL REMOVAL
C. SURGICAL INCISION

7.  AN ANALGESIC IS USED FOR?
A. SWELLING
B. MILD PAIN
C. HEART ATTACK

8.  NEGLIGENCE BY A PROFESSIONAL PERSON IS CALLED?
A. SLANDER
B. MALPRACTICE
C. INVALID WORK ETHIC

9.  WORD PART  ITIS MEANS?
A. INFECTION
B. PAIN
C. INFLAMMATION

10.  WHEN ASSESEING A SITUATION FOR THE PRIORITY OF TREATMENT?
A. TRAUMA
B. TRIAGE
C. TOURNIQUET

11.  WHAT IS A SYMPTOM?
A. PAIN THAT CAN BE OBSERVED ONLY BY THE PATIENT
B. PAIN THAT CAN BE OBSERVED BY OTHERS

12.  WHAT IS UNPRIVILEGED TOUCHING OF ONE PERSON BY ANOTHER?
A. ASSAULT
B. BATTERY
C. MALPRACTICE

13.  WHAT IS TACHYCARDIA?
A. ABNORMALLY DECREASED HEART RATE
B. ABNORMALLY LOW B/P
C. ABNORMALLY INCREASED HEART RATE

14.  WHAT IS HYPOTENSION?
A. LOWER THAN NORMAL B/P
B. HIGHER THAN NORMAL B/P
C. HIGHER THAN NORMAL RESPIRATORY RATE

15.  LATIN TERM MEANING THE RESPONSIBILTY OF AN EMPLOYER FOR THE ACTS OF AN EMPLOYEE?
A. RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR
B. RES ISPA LOQUITUR

16.  WHAT LICENSE MUST A PHYSICIAN OBTAIN BEFORE HE CAN PRESCRIBE OR DISPENSE CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES?
A. PHARMACY
B. DRUG
C. NARCOTICS

17.  WHAT IS AN EMETIC?
A. A DRUG THAT ENDUCES VOMITING
B. A DRUG THAT PREVENTS VOMITING
C. TO VOMIT

18.  WHAT IS A FRAUDULENT SIGNATURE?
A. FRAUD
B. UNETHICAL
C. FORGERY

19.  WHAT IS AN ANTICOAGULENT?
A. A DRUG THAT PROMOTES CLOTTING
B. A DRUG THAT PREVENTS CLOTTING
C. A DRUG THAT PREVENTS BRUISING

20.  WORD PART RRHEA MEANS?
A. SURGICAL SUTURING
B. SURGICAL REMOVAL
C. FLOW OR DISCHARGE

21.  WHAT TERM MEANS DIFFICULT OR LABORED BREATHING?
A. APNEA
B. DYSPNEA
C. EUPNEA

22.  THE PROCESS OF CHANGING WORDS INTO NUMBERS FOR INSURANCE PURPOSES?
A. DIAGNOSTIC NUMBERING
B. CODING

23.  WHEN IS OK TO PUT THE CALLER ON HOLD?
A. WHEN YOU HAVE THEIR NAME AND NUMBER
B. WHEN YOU HAVE AN EMERGENCY
C. WHEN YOU HAVE THEIR EMERGENCY

24.  WHY USE A SYNTHETIC CAST OVER A PLASTIC OR PLASTER CAST?
A. COST LESS
B. CHEAPER MORE FLEXIBLE
C. THEY ARE LIGHT,STRONGER,AND MORE WATER RESISTANT

25.  WHAT INJECTION ANGLE SHOULD YOU USE TO ADMINISTER A SUBCUTANEOUS INJECTION?
A. 10 DEGREE
B. 90 DEGREE
C. 45 DEGREE

26.  WHAT IS AN INSURANCE CLAIM FOR ALL GOVERENTMENT CLAIMS?
A. CMS 1300
B. CMS 1500
C. CMS 1700

27.  AN UNEXPECTED EVENT THAT MAY CAUSE INJURY?
A. DREAD DISEASE RIDER
B. ACCIDENT
C. CLAUSE EVENT

28.  OXYGEN RATE IS DELIVERED?
A. LITERS PER MINUTE
B. VOLUME PER MINUTE
C. CC PER MINUTE

29.  A DRUG THAT PRODUCES SLEEP?
A. SEDATIVE
B. HYPNOTIC
C. TRANQULIZER

30.  WHEN A PHYSICIAN  MAKES ARRANGEMENTS FOR HEALTH CARE SERVICES?
A. COORDINATION OF CARE
B. COORDINATION OF BENIFITS
C. COORDINATION OF SERVICE

31.  WHAT ARE SMALL ARTERIES CALLED?
A. ARTERIOLES
B. ARTERIALS

32.  WHAT DOES THE TERM GASTRALGIA MEAN?
A. STOMACH FLU
B. STOMACH PAIN
C. STOMACH ULCER

33.  DEOXYGENATED BLOOD ENTERS THE RIGHT ATRIUM OF THE?
A. BRAIN
B. HEART
C. LUNG

34.  HIV STANDS FOR?
A. HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS
B. HUMAN INTRAVENOUS VALVE

35.  WHAT SHOULD BE ON A CONTAINER THAT CONTAINS BLOOD
A. OSHA REGULATIONS
B. HIPPA REGULATIONS
C. BIOHAZARD LABEL

36.  WHAT DRUG IS USED TO RELIEVE ITCHING
A. ANTIPYRETIC
B. ANTIPRURITIC
C. ANTITCH

37.  WORD PART MELAN/O MENAS?
A. GRAY
B. BLUE
C. BLACK

38.  WHAT INJECTION WOULD YOU PERFORM AT A 10-15 DEGREE ANGLE?
A. INTRASKINAL
B. INTRADERMAL
C. INTRAMUSCULAR

39.  WHAT DOES BID STAND FOR?
A. THREES TIEMS A DAY
B. TWICE A DAY
C. INJECTIONS DAILY

40.  HOW MNANY DIGITS CAN A SUB-CLASSIFICATION NUMBER HAVE IN ICD-9CM
A. 5
B. 10
C. 6

41.  ABBREVIATION FOR DROPS
A. GTT OR GT
B. gtt or gt

42.  what color tube top had no additives?
A. blue
B. green
C. red

43.  WORD PART POLIO
A. BLUE
B. GRAY
C. GREEN

44.  HOW MANY LEADS ARE ON A STANDARD ECG?
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12

45.  METATARSALS ARE LOCATED IN THE
A. ARM
B. HAND
C. FOOT

46.  WHICH IS A MEASURE OF VOLUME
A. GRAM
B. METER
C. LITER

47.  WHEN TESTING FOR OCCULT BLOOD WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD YOU USE
A. STOOL SAMPLE
B. BLOOD SAMPLE
C. URINE SAMPLE

48.  HOW LONG CAN A TOURNIQUET REMAIN ON A PATIENTS ARM?
A. 60 MINUTES
B. 1 MINUTE

49.  LEUK/O MEANS ?
A. BLACK
B. WHITE BLOOD CELL
C. WHITE

50.  THE BODY’S NATURAL PACE MAKER?
A. RIGHT ATRIUM
B. S A NODE
C. N A NODE

NCCT Practice Test B

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Q.1)       To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) __________.

A.            reorder point

B.            inventory control log

C.            order quantity

D.            all answers are correct

Q.2)       A(n) __________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

A.            inventory control tag

B.            packing slip

C.            purchase order

D.            invoice

Q.3)       Periodically, the medical assistant should check all electrical equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) __________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

A.            inventory log

B.            maintenance log

C.            quality control log

D.            no answers are correct

Q.4)       When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.

A.            transcriptionist

B.            stenographer

C.            decoder

D.            receptionist

Q.5)       Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient by a process known as __________.

A.            procedure review

B.            admissions review

C.            appropriateness review

D.            transfer review

Q.6)       Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

A.            Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

B.            Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

C.            The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

D.            Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

Q.7)       A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?

A.            Gunshot wound

B.            Anorexia

C.            Drug addiction

D.            Pregnancy

Q.8)       Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?

A.            OSHA

B.            CLIA

C.            CMS

D.            HIPAA

Q.9)       A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.

A.            right justified

B.            indented 5 spaces

C.            equally spaced vertically

D.            at the left hand margin

Q.10)     When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?

A.            Comma

B.            Semicolon

C.            Asterisk

D.            Colon

Q.11)     When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

A.            If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level and s/he will calm down.

B.            Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.

C.            Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining; the doctor should handle them.

D.            No correct answer

Q.12)     Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.

A.            non-verbal communication

B.            verbal communication

C.            written communication

D.            all answers are correct

Q.13)     What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

A.            Erase the entry and write in the new appointment.

B.            Put “white-out” over the entry and write on top.

C.            Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials.

D.            Mark through the entry with a single red line.

Q.14)     The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.

A.            covered amount

B.            deductable

C.            explanation of benefits

D.            co-pay

Q.15)     Instructions to an insurance company about where to make payment and to whom are called __________.

A.            payment agreements

B.            assignment of benefits

C.            benefit accommodations

D.            assignment of payments

Q.16)     The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

A.            Social Security number

B.            federal tax identification number

C.            state tax number

D.            insurance ID number

Q.17)     An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.

A.            duration of the appointment

B.            relationship to the patient

C.            Social Security number of the patient

D.            insurance provider’s contact information

Q.18)     A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.

A.            fiscal

B.            financial

C.            fiduciary

D.            accounting

Q.19)     Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.

A.            DEA

B.            EPA

C.            FDA

D.            CDC

Q.20)     Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e. surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient’s insurance policy contract involves a process known as __________.

A.            pre-certification

B.            pre-authorization

C.            pre-determination

D.            pre-existing

Q.21)     In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never __________.

A.            be facing the file cabinets

B.            be able to be viewed by patients

C.            be turned on

D.            be viewed by medical personnel

Q.22)     The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.

A.            lymphatic temperature

B.            axillary temperature

C.            deltoid temperature

D.            delta temperature

Q.23)     What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

A.            Open fracture

B.            Spiral fracture

C.            Greenstick fracture

D.            Closed fracture

Q.24)     The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.

A.            tid

B.            bid

C.            qid

D.            qh

Q.25)     The abbreviation for as needed is __________.

A.            prn

B.            ppn

C.            an

D.            add

Q.26)     The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.

A.            NPO

B.            NBM

C.            NM

D.            nom

Q.27)     Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

A.            Insulin syringe

B.            Tuberculin syringe

C.            Hypodermic syringes

D.            A closed injection system

Q.28)     When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.

A.            refrigerate it for further use

B.            pour it back in the bottle

C.            discard it

D.            incubate it

Q.29)     When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.

A.            date it

B.            store it

C.            freeze it

D.            color it

Q.30)     The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?

A.            0.5 cc

B.            1.0 cc

C.            1.5 cc

D.            0.25 cc

Q.31)     A drug that causes urination is called a __________.

A.            diuretic

B.            hypertensive

C.            gestational drug

D.            narcotic

Q.32)     A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.

A.            antitussive

B.            antiemetic

C.            antiseptic

D.            antitoxin

Q.33)     A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.

A.            antipyretic

B.            antidote

C.            antiemetic

D.            analgesic

Q.34)     A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.

A.            vasodilator

B.            vasoconstrictor

C.            bronchodilator

D.            dilatemetic

Q.35)     A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

A.            suppressant

B.            decongestant

C.            antihistamine

D.            inebronchodilator

Q.36)     A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.

A.            miotic

B.            diuretic

C.            cytotoxin

D.            expectorant

Q.37)     A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________.

A.            solution

B.            emulsion

C.            elixir

D.            tincture

Q.38)     Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

A.            Narcotic overdose

B.            Inflammation

C.            Angina pectoris

D.            Anxiety

Q.39)     Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.

A.            inflammation

B.            appetite

C.            swelling

D.            excretion of urine

Q.40)     Schedule I drugs include __________.

A.            miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

B.            substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

C.            minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

D.            no correct answer

Q.41)     A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.

A.            transdermal system

B.            reservoir system

C.            ointment system

D.            epidermis system

Illustration #1

Q.42)     Refer to illustration #1 and identify number 10.

A.            Superior Vena Cava

B.            Aorta

C.            Right atrium

D.            Pulmonary vein

Q.43)     Refer to illustration #1 and identify number 5.

A.            Inferior vena cava

B.            Superior vena cava

C.            Right atrium

D.            Right ventricle

Q.44)     A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.

A.            Cystitis

B.            urethral stricture

C.            chronic renal failure

D.            pyelonephritis

Q.45)     A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called __________.

A.            high blood pressure

B.            type 1 diabetes

C.            pancreatitis

D.            type 2 diabetes

Q.46)     The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called __________.

A.            enema

B.            colostomy

C.            constipation

D.            peristalsis

Q.47)     The prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum is called __________.

A.            peristalsis

B.            anal incontinence

C.            fecal impaction

D.            feces

Q.48)     The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.

A.            flatus

B.            diarrhea

C.            peristalsis

D.            blockage

Illustration #2

Q.49)     Refer to Illustration #2 and identify the number 9.

A.            Nasal

B.            Zygomatic

C.            Temporal

D.            Radius

Q.50)     Refer to Illustration #2 and identify the number 4.

A.            Clavicle

B.            Sternum

C.            Scapula

D.            Ilium

Q.51)     A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a __________.

A.            non-pathogen

B.            spore

C.            flora

D.            pathogen

Q.52)     The most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw is __________.

A.            selecting the correct needle gauge

B.            using 70% alcohol prep pads

C.            identifying the patient

D.            using the correct tourniquet

Q.53)     Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing?

A.            Both venipuncture and microsampling involve skill.

B.            It doesn’t really matter which direction you lancet a finger.

C.            Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect.

D.            “Getting blood” is not the only goal of good blood drawing.

Q.54)     To determine the size of the needle, remember that the higher the gauge number the __________ needle bore.

A.            longer

B.            smaller

C.            larger

D.            shorter

Q.55)     A centrifuge works by __________.

A.            freezing blood specimens

B.            heating blood specimens

C.            incubating blood at body temp

D.            separating cells and serum

Q.56)     A tourniquet should be on the patient’s arm no longer than __________.

A.            1 minute

B.            2 minutes

C.            three minutes

D.            four minutes

Q.57)     To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and __________.

A.            work in a circle from the center to the periphery

B.            wipe carefully back and forth

C.            cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds

D.            use a lifting motion to move away from the skin

Q.58)     On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the __________.

A.            start

B.            amplitude

C.            gain

D.            b and c

Q.59)     Conversion of dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called __________.

A.            defribrillation

B.            shock treatment

C.            v tach

D.            scintillation

Q.60)     The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is __________.

A.            amplitude

B.            ground electrode

C.            direction or shape

D.            polarization

Q.61)     A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the __________.

A.            R wave

B.            T wave

C.            Q wave

D.            S wave

Q.62)     A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called __________.

A.            uniform

B.            malignant

C.            fused

D.            bigeminy

Q.63)     When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should __________ the first drop.

A.            collect

B.            use

C.            wipe away

D.            wash off

Q.64)     When performing any CLIA waived test it is important to do which one of the following?

A.            Keep all CLIA waived tests refrigerated.

B.            Discard quality control kits immediately upon opening the box.

C.            Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter.

D.            All answers are correct

Q.65)     An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the __________ required for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.

A.            time

B.            route

C.            muscles

D.            heart structures

Q.66)     When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading, it is called __________.

A.            irregular with a pattern

B.            absolutely regular

C.            essentially regular

D.            totally irregular

Q.67)     When applying leads, apply the V1 lead __________.

A.            directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

B.            on the fourth intercostal space right sternal border

C.            lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

D.            on the fifth intercostal space midclavicular line

Q.68)     When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as a(n) __________.

A.            patent ductus arteriosus

B.            arrhythmia

C.            aneurysm

D.            embolism

Q.69)     Oxygen can be administered to the patient by way of a __________.

A.            catheter

B.            cannula

C.            tent

D.            all answers are correct

Q.70)     How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection?

A.            At body temperature

B.            In a refrigerator

C.            At room temperature

D.            In a freezer

Q.71)     A positive urine dipstick test for albumin indicates the patient has __________ in his/her urine.

A.            glucose

B.            white blood cells

C.            protein

D.            ketones

Q.72)     Which urine dipstick test detects acetone in the urine?

A.            Glucose

B.            Ketones

C.            Protein

D.            pH

Q.73)     Which of the following stains classify bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative?

A.            PAP

B.            Gram

C.            Hematoxylin

D.            Wright’s

Q.74)     Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture?

A.            Back of the throat and tonsillar area

B.            Nasopharynx and epiglottis

C.            Cheeks and tongue

D.            Gums and tongue

Q.75)     A drug that helps to decrease appetite is called an __________.

A.            appetite modifier

B.            appetite stimulant

C.            anitspasmodic

D.            appetite suppressant

NCCT Practice Test C

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Q.1)       When the internal environment of the body is functioning properly, a condition of ________ exits.

A.            Hemorrhage

B.            dysfunction

C.            homeostasis

D.            euphoria

Q.2)       Schedule V drugs include

A.            substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

B.            miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drug

C.            minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

D.            various narcotics such as opium

Q.3)       digoxin is used for

A.            excretion of urine

B.            anxiety

C.            cardiac problems

D.            suppress swelling

Q.4)       escape of fluid into the pleural cavity is called

A.            pneumonia

B.            pulmonary edema

C.            plural effusion

D.            emphysema

Q.5)       an injection where the skin is pulled laterally 1 1/2 inches away from the injection site, is called ______.

A.            intravenous

B.            Z track

C.            EZ track

D.            intramuscular

Q.6)       conduct, courtesy, and manners customary in the medical profession are called _______.

A.            ethics

B.            medical etiquette

C.            moral therapy

D.            precocity

Q.7)       a kind of liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) ______.

A.            solution

B.            emulsion

C.            elixir

D.            tinctures

Q.8)       the insurance program that covers needy and low income people is ______.

A.            Medicaid

B.            Medicare

C.            tri-care

D.            blue cross/blue shield

Q.9)       failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person’s property is ___________ .

A.            malpractice

B.           defamation

C.           slander

D.           negligence

Q.10)    the _______ name of a drug is its official name

A.           trade or brand

B.           chemical

C.           generic

D.           organic

Q.11)    inflammation of the peritoneal cavity is

A.           peritoneal cavitis

B.           hernia

C.           peritonitis

D.           colitis

Q.12)    which of the following is used to administer an intradermal injection ?

A.           insulin syringe

B.           tuberculin syringe

C.           hypodermic syringe

D.           tubex closed injection system

Q.13)    ECG term vector refers to _____.

A.           space

B.           stillness

C.           flatness

D.           force

Q.14)    the Tri-care fiscal year is from

A.           October 1 – September 31

B.           Jan. 1 – dec. 31

C.           July 1 – June 31

D.           cot 1 – seep 1

Q.15)    a glass container holding medication in either Iiquid or powder form is called a(n) ____________.

A.           multi-dose vial

B.           capsule

C.           prefilled syringe

D.           ampule

Q.16)    the medical term for turning downward is

A.           adduction

B.           external rotation

C.           supination

D.           pronation

Q.17)    fluid may be held in the body tissues and make them swell, this is called ____.

A.           inflammation

B.           dysmorphia

C.           edema

D.           hydromorphia

Q.18)    an organization that offers insurance against losses in exchange for a premium is called ___.

A.           health maintenance organization

B.           rider

C.           member physician

D.           bank

Q.19)    a date on a bottle of medication that assures its potency is _____.

A.           ingredient date

B.           sale date

C.           expiration date

D.           manufactures date

Q.20)    when the patient kneels, and places his/her head and chest on the table, with the top elevated, it is called _______.

A.           lithotomy position

B.           knee-chest position

C.           proctal position

D.           prone position

Q.21)    the American Medical Association developed a reference procedural code book using a numerical system for procedures, and this is called _______.

A.           insurance claim manual

B.           reference manual

C.           manual for current procedures

D.           current procedural terminology

Q.22)    a predetermined amount that the insured must pay each year before the insurance company will pay for an illness of injury is called__________.

A.           deductible

B.           co-payment fee

C.           extended benefits

D.           application fee

Q.23)    the medical term for tube feeding is _______.

A.           IV

B.           esophageal introduction

C.           gavage

D.           IVN

Q.24)    a clean smooth cut cause by a sharp cutting instrument is called ___________.

A.           laceration

B.           puncture

C.           incision

D.           abrasion

Q.25)    to determine if the heart rhythm is regular or irregular, the distance between each P wave and then each _________ is measured

A.           T

B.           Q

C.           R

D.           U

Q.26)    a drug that produces sleep is called a(n)

A.           hypnotic

B.           placebo

C.           diaphoretic

D.           antispasmodic

Q.27)    a drug used to increase the secretions and mucus from the bronchial tubes is called ____.

A.           antitussive

B.           decongestant

C.           vasodilator

D.           expectorant

Q.28)    schedule IV drugs include

A.           substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

B.           includes various narcotics such as opium

C.           minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

D.           none of the answers

Q.29)    a check written to the doctor by someone other than the patient, is called a _________.

A.           Third party check

B.           delayed check

C.           referred check

D.           cashiers

Q.30)    the lateral movement of the limbs away from the median plane of the body is called

A.           extension

B.           supination

C.           internal rotation

D.           abduction

Q.31)    Thorazine is used to __________.

A.           cause excretion of urine

B.           induce vomiting

C.           reduce mental tension anxiety

D.           suppress swelling and shock

Q.32)    the first loop of the small intestine is called the _______.

A.           jejunum

B.           duodenum

C.           transverse colon

D.           deuterium

Q.33)    what is the proper placement of an agar plate in the incubator

A.           right side up

B.           inverted

C.           inside out

D.           on the side

Q.34)    insulin syringes are collaborated in

A.           cubic centimeters

B.           minums

C.           mm

D.           units

Q.35)    the tube used to collect a blood sample for a complete blood count (CBC) is ____________.

A.           green top, lithium heparin additive

B.           blue top, sodium citrate additive

C.           lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive

D.           red top, no additive

Q.36)    why are culture tests used in autoclaving?

A.           to determine if the autoclave has too much pressure

B.           to determine if any bacteria are developing in the procedure

C.           to determine if the autoclave has any leakage

D.           to determine the effectiveness of the sterilization procedure

Q.37)    a person not infected by but unconsciously transporting harmful bacteria is called ______.

A.           carrier

B.           infectious

C.           immune

D.           pre-infected

Q.38)    a 12-month period that begins with the same pre-determined date each year and is selected for financial purposes is call a(n)__________.

A.           financial year

B.           fiduciary year

C.           accounting year

D.           fiscal year

Q.39)    the position of a patient for a gynecological examination is ______.

A.           lithotomy

B.           horizontal recumbent

C.           prone

D.           sims

Q.40)    removal of synovial fluid is called

A.           paracentesis

B.           arthrography

C.           arthrocentesis

D.           myelocyte

Q.41)    an internal software language used to control computer hardware is called ______.

A.           shareware

B.           K2y

C.           operating system

D.           OS2

Q.42)    the study of the function of cells is called _____.

A.           anatomy

B.           cytology

C.           histology

D.           physiology

Q.43)    amniocentesis allows physicians to ______.

A.           monitor irregularities of the heart

B.           remove duodenal ulcers

C.           perform genetic tests before birth

D.           check for gall stones

Q.44)     a wound in which the outer layers of the skin are scraped off is called ______.

A.           abrasion

B.           laceration

C.           puncture

D.           incision

Q.45)    an X-ray examination of the gall bladder following oral administration of a contrast medium is called __________.

A.           gastroscopy

B.           ultrasound

C.           cholecystography

D.           photocopy

Q.46)    inflammation of the eyelid is called

A.           diplopia

B.           dysmetropsia

C.           myopiatits

D.           blepharitis

Q.47)    a test for non-invasive cardiac evaluation undertaken with an ECG, under controlled exercise stress condition is called

A.           cardiac cycle test

B.           sedentary test

C.           treadmill test

D.           holter-monitor test

Q.48)    concerning computers, a duplicate file to protect information is called a ___________.

A.           backup

B.           default

C.           matrix

D.           batch

Q.49)    a number issued by the internal revenue service to medical groups or solo practice for income tax is called ____________.

A.           federal tax identification number

B.           insurance id number

C.           social security number

D.           state tax number

Q.50)    the period of time after the beginning of an insurance policy for which no benefits are payable, is called ________.

A.           extension period

B.           elimination period

C.           time limit

D.           grace period

Q.51)    the HgBA1c test has made daily self-glucose monitoring unnecessary.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.52)    the tuberculin test is a type of intradermal skin test that is read in 48 to 72 hours.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.53)    female patients should be taught to wipe and cleanse the perinea from back to front.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.54)    a hollter monitor is an ECG device that includes a small cassette recorder, allowing the reading to be taken over a period of time.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.55)    infants need seven well-baby examinations during their first year, at 2 weeks, 1 month, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, and 1 year.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.56)    puberty is the period of adolescence during which a person begins to develop sexual traits.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.57)    menstrual cycles are prompted by changes in the testosterone levels.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.58)    pregnancy test are used to measure human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), which is produced during pregnancy.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.59)    normal vision is referred to as 20/40.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.60)    when testing distance vision, the first number is always 20 ft., because the patient stands 20 ft. away from the chart.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.61)    to use a physical chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores is to ________

A.           eradicate

B.           toxify

C.           sterilize

D.           acid wash

Q.62)    which of the following is usually used to take a pulse ?

A.           apical pulse

B.           radial pulse

C.           brachial pulse

D.           apical-radial pulse

Q.63)    the most common RH antigen is

A.           B

B.           E

C.           C

D.           D

Q.64)    an incompatibility of the Rh blood group between an Rh positive fetus and an Rh negative mother can result in

A.           HDN

B.           SLE

C.           IDDM

D.           CRP

Q.65)    the blood type known as the universal donor is

A.           AB positive

B.           AB negative

C.           O positive

D.           O negative

Q.66)    test for blood types are examples of

A.           precipitation

B.           agglutination reactions

C.           ELISA

D.           radio assay

Q.67)    Strep throat, and less commonly, rheumatic fever are caused by

A.           Lyme disease

B.           chlamydia

C.           group B strep

D.           group A strep

Q.68)    most urinary tract infections (UTI) are

A.           gram positive

B.           gram negative

C.           staph organisms

D.           strep organisms

Q.69)    aa bacteria that is spherical, round or ovoid is a

A.           vibrio

B.           coccus

C.           spirillum

D.           bacillus

Q.70)    a rod shaped bacteria is classified as a

A.           bacillus

B.           spirillum

C.           coccus

D.           vibrio

Q.71)    how do streptococci grow?

A.           in chains

B.           in pairs

C.           in grape-like clusters

D.           spirals

Q.72)    beneficial bacteria found in that create a barrier against pathogens are called

A.           antigens

B.           normal flora

C.           immunity

D.           virulence

Q.73)    the stains used in gram staining are:

A.           crystal violet

B.           iodine

C.           alcohol

D.           saphrinie

E.           lithium

F.           red food coloring

Q.74)    aerosols are administered in this way

A.           parenteral administration

B.           rectal administration

C.           inhalation

D.           topical

Q.75)    drugs that have been mixed with liquids but are not dissolved are called

A.           mixtures or suspensions

B.           tinctures

C.           elixirs

D.           emulsions

Q.76)    parenteral route include all of the following except:

A.           transcutaneous systems

B.           rectal suppositories

C.           sublingual tablets

D.           nebulizer inhalation

Q.77)    subcutaneous injections are administered in all of the following sites except

A.           upper, outer arm

B.           front of thigh

C.           abdomen

D.           buttocks

Q.78)    a deficiency of which vitamin in the B-complex group during pregnancy could cause birth defects such as spina bifida?

A.           folic acid

B.           thiamine

C.           pyridoxine

D.           riboflavin

Q.79)    the time established for filing law suits is

A.           civil law

B.           statute of limitations

C.           contract

D.           none of the answers

Q.80)    a patient’s failure to act prudently and reasonably, or doing that which a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances is called

A.           breach of duty

B.           assumption of risk

C.           contributory negligence

D.           none of the answers

Q.81)    consent to treatment based on a full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of that treatment is called

A.           contributory negligence

B.           fraud

C.           assumption of risk

D.           prominent cause

Q.82)    failure to achieve and agree upon result, even when the highest degree of skill has been used is called

A.           breach of contract

B.           negligence

C.           proximate cause

D.           ethics

Q.83)    a violation of a person’s right not to have his/her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of/made public without giving consent is

A.           false imprisonment

B.           malpractice

C.           invasion of privacy

D.           statute

Q.84)    which of these generally results from an act of carelessness, without intent to harm

A.           breach of confidentiality

B.           malpractice

C.           slander

D.           man slaughter

Q.85)    the word element -ectomy means

A.           air

B.           outer, on the outside

C.           surgical removal

D.           none of the answers

Q.86)    which condition is the death of bone tissue cause by an insufficient blood supply, infection, malignancy, or trauma

A.           osteoclasis

B.           osteolysis

C.           osteonecrosis

D.           osteosarcoma

Q.87)    which term describes the rupture of a muscle

A.           hernia

B.           mycelia

C.           myorrhaphy

D.           myorrhexis

Q.88)    which condition is an inflammation of the tissue surrounding bone

A.           perichondritis

B.           peridontitis

C.           periostitis

D.           peritonitis

Q.89)    which medication causes blood vessels to become narrower

A.           anticoagulant

B.           thrombolytic

C.           vasoconstrictor

D.           vasodilator

Q.90)    the process of building up of body cells and substances from nutrients is known as

A.           anabolism

B.           catabolism

C.           digestion

D.           metabolism

Q.91)    which condition is the paralysis of all four extremities

A.           hemiparesis

B.           hemiplegia

C.           myoparesis

D.           quadriplegia

Q.92)    which procedure is commonly known as a facelift

A.           dermatoplasty

B.           lumpectomy

C.           rhytidectomy

D.           sclera therapy

Q.93)    which condition is an inflammation of the tympanic membrane

A.           eustachitis

B.           myringitis

C.           ladyrinthitis

D.           ototis

Q.94)    which condition is also commonly known as far sightedness

A.           extropia

B.           hyperopia

C.           myopia

D.           nyctalopia

Q.95)    which of the following is the lack of development of an organ or tissue

A.           anaplasia

B.           aplasia

C.           dysplasia

D.           hyperplasia

Q.96)    gastrectomy:

A.           gastric resection

B.           intestinal incision

C.           tumor of the stomach

D.           incision of the stomach

E.           resection of the intestine

Q.97)    pertaining to the brain

A.           cerebral

B.           cephalic

C.           renal

D.           cardiac

E.           neural

Q.98)    which suffix means a surgical creation of an artificial opening

A.           -ectomy

B.           -otomy

C.           -ostomy

D.           -plasty

Q.99)    which combining form means fever

A.           py/o

B.           pyel/o

C.           pyelor/o

D.           pyr/o

Q.100) the abbreviation for water

A.           aq

B.           water

C.           wa

D.           aw

Q.101) the locations where air enters the respiratory tract is called

A.           larynx

B.           lungs

C.           nasal cavity

D.           bronchi

Q.102) the sum of the chemical reactions in a cell is known as

A.           homeostasis

B.           metabolism

C.           anabolism

D.           catabolism

Q.103) the section portion of the small intestine is called the

A.           ducalvant

B.           sigmoid

C.           duodenum

D.           jejunum

Q.104) the female organ that corresponds to the male penis is the

A.           vulva

B.           ovaries

C.           clitoris

D.           uterus

Q.105) a plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior

A.           coronal plane

B.           sagittal plane

C.           transverse plane

D.           midline plane

Q.106) visual perception is located in the _______ lobe

A.           frontal

B.           temporal

C.           parental

D.           occipital

Q.107) an instrument used to test reflexes is called the

A.           flexion hammer

B.           tuning fork

C.           percussion hammer

D.           pronation hammer

Q.108) policies that do not provide benefits for conditions that were treated before the policy was issued are called

A.           pre-determined

B.           pre-existing

C.           pre-certification

D.           pre-authorized

Q.109) the employees withholding exemption certificate form number is

A.           W-4

B.           W-2

C.           1040

D.           Social security number

Q.110) when administering an ultrasound treatment the coupling agent should be

A.           heated to 110 degrees

B.           apply at room temperature

C.           apply with a damp towel

D.           kept on the ultra sound machine

Q.111) instructions to an insurance company about whom and where to make payment is called

A.           beneficial assignment

B.           assignment of benefits

C.           notice of payment

D.           payment contract

Q.112) the computer, printer, disk drive, and monitors are referred to as

A.           visual display equipment

B.           processing equipment

C.           hardware

D.           assets

Q.113) a drug used to control bleeding , a blood coagulant is called a(n)

A.           hemostatic

B.           vasodilator

C.           steroid

D.           opiate

Q.114) benefits in a form of cash payments rather than service are called

A.           indemnity

B.           hospital benefits

C.           catastrophic benefits

D.           cash advances

Q.115) a requirement under a health care policy dictates that the insured be responsible for the percentage of covered services. this is called

A.           coinsurance

B.           per-define policy

C.           comprehensive

D.           in percent policy

Q.116) payment for hospital charges incurred by an insured person because of injury or illness is called

A.           hospital benefits

B.           catastrophic health benefits

C.           extra health benefits

D.           none of the answers

Q.117) in banking, a deposit or addition to a bank account is called a ______.

A.           debit

B.           credit

C.           checking account

D.           note

Q.118) an attachment to a policy excluding certain illnesses or disabilities that would otherwise be covered is called

A.           optionally renewable

B.           dread disease rider

C.           pre policy rider

D.           waiver

Q.119) as part of the office book keeping procedures, the physicians bank statement should be reconciled with the ________

A.           daily ledger

B.           business ledger

C.           personal ledger

D.           check book

Q.120) E/M codes are located in the _____ manuals

A.           CPT

B.           ICD-9-CM

C.           ICD-10-CM

D.           HCPC

Q.121) A 1:10 solutions of bleach and water is an effective disinfectant.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.122) a bleach and water solution once mixed remains effective for 1 week

A.           True

B.           False

Q.123) _____ testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who may be concerned thy have been infected with HIV through an occupation exposure.

A.           serological

B.           blood

C.           immediate

D.           virologic

Q.124) universal precautions is __________

A.           an organization to promote infection control

B.           an approach to infection control

C.           EPA guidelines

D.           world health organization guidelines

Q.125) tapping the patient with fingers and listening to the sounds produced is called

A.           percussion

B.           audition

C.           additive

D.           propitiation

Q.126) an instrument used to open or distend a body orifice is called

A.           tenaculum

B.           sound

C.           curette

D.           speculum

Q.127) ___________ is the study of words and their relationship to other words in a sentence

A.           etiquette

B.           forum

C.           punctuation

D.           grammar

Q.128) a person who represents either party of an insurance claim is the

A.           doctor

B.           adjuster

C.           provider

D.           subscriber

Q.129) a drug used to prevent blood from clotting is called a(n)

A.           anticoagulant

B.           anticholinergic

C.           antidote

D.           placebo

Q.130) one of the vital functions of long bones is the formation of

A.           white blood cells

B.           red blood cells

C.           calcium

D.           cellulite

Answer Key

  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. C
  5. B
  6. B
  7. B
  8. A
  9. D
  10. C
  11. A
  12. C
  13. D
  14. A
  15. D
  16. D
  17. C
  18. B
  19. C
  20. B
  21. D
  22. A
  23. C
  24. C
  25. C
  26. A
  27. D
  28. D
  29. A
  30. D
  31. C
  32. B
  33. B
  34. C
  35. C
  36. D
  37. A
  38. D
  39. A
  40. C
  41. C
  42. B
  43. C
  44. A
  45. A
  46. D
  47. C
  48. A
  49. A
  50. B
  51. B
  52. A
  53. B

More answers coming!

Law and Ethics Practice Test

Printable Version-Click Here

 

  1. Right and wrong conduct is known as  ________.
    1. Empathy
    2. Criminal law
    3. Ethics
    4. Licensure
  2. The most common type of medical tort liability is ________.
    1. Negligence
    2. Breach of contract
    3. Breach of confidence
    4. Fraud and deceit
  3. A person being sued is called the ________.
    1. Plaintiff
    2. Tort
    3. Defendant
    4. Criminal law
  4. The withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is  ________.
    1. Contract
    2. Reasonable care
    3. Negligence
    4. Abandonment
  5. An unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another is ________.
    1. Litigation
    2. Assault
    3. Crime
    4. Libel
  6. The health worker is protected by law if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonably compared with fellow workers.  This is called ________.
    1. Respondeat superior
    2. Reasonable care
    3. Duty of care
    4. Statute
  7. Negligence by a professional person is called ________.
    1. Invasion of privacy
    2. Slander
    3. Malpractice
    4. Tort
  8. An act that violates criminal law is called ________.
    1. Defamation
    2. Crime
    3. Libel
    4. Slander
  9. The breaking of a law promise, or duty is called ________.
    1. Statute
    2. Breach
    3. Consent
    4. Incompetent
  10. The ability to see things from another person’s point of view is _________.
    1. Consent
    2. Respoindat superior
    3. Empathy
    4. Ethics
  11. The time established for filing law suits is ________.
    1. Civil law
    2. Statute of limitations
    3. Contract
    4. No correct answer
  12. A writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony is a(n) ________.
    1. Habeus corpus
    2. Tort of appearance
    3. Subpoena
    4. Tort et a travers
  13. A wrong committed against another person or the person’s property is a ________.
    1. Defamation
    2. Libel
    3. Tort
    4. Plaintiff
  14. Holding or detaining a person against his will is ________.
    1. False imprisonment
    2. Crime
    3. Incompetent
    4. Duty of care
  15. A violation of a person’s right not to have his or her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of made public without giving consent is ________.
    1. False imprisonment
    2. Malpractice
    3. Invasion of privacy
    4. Statute
  16. A major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is ________.
    1. Licensure
    2. Civil law
    3. Tort
    4. Felony
  17. One who institutes a lawsuit is ________.
    1. Defendant
    2. Plaintiff
    3. Litigation
    4. Respondeat superior
  18. A legal statement of how an individual’s property is to be distributed after death is ________.
    1. Contract
    2. tort
    3. will
    4. judgment
  19. Information given by a patient to medical personnel with cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is ________.
    1. Duty of care
    2. Respondeat superior
    3. Judgment
    4. Privileged communication
  20. A rule of conduct made by a government body is ________.
    1. Tort
    2. Law
    3. Will
    4. Contract
  21. Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person’s property is ________.
    1. Malpractice
    2. Negligence
    3. Slander
    4. Defamation
  22. Permission granted by a person voluntarily and in his right mind is ________.
    1. Consent
    2. Litigation
    3. Breach
    4. Duty of care
  23. Injuring the name and reputation of another person by making false statements to a third person is ________.
    1. Empathy
    2. Negligence
    3. Defamation
    4. Ethics
  24. An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is ________.
    1. Contract
    2. Litigation
    3. Statute
    4. Felony
  25. Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as ________.
    1. Breach of duty
    2. Abandonment
    3. Competence
    4. Incompetence
  26. The final decision of a court in an action or suit is ________.
    1. Consent
    2. Contract
    3. Judgment
    4. Licensure
  27. Responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee is ________.
    1. Libel
    2. Malpractice
    3. Respondeat superior
    4. Civil law
  28. A Latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is _________.
    1. Res gestae
    2. Non compos mentis
    3. Res judicata
    4. Tecum
  29. A person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent is called a(n) ________.
    1. Emancipated minor
    2. Plaintiff
    3. Defendant
    4. Tort
  30. An impartial panel established to listen to and investigate patient’s complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called a ________ committee.
    1. Medical ethics
    2. Medical grievance
    3. Civil law
    4. No correct answer
  31. Latin for “things done; deeds”– the facts and circumstances attendant to the act in question would be called ________.
    1. Res gestae
    2. Loum tenems
    3. Tecum
    4. No correct answer
  32. Testimony of a witness under oath and written down before trial for possible use when the case comes to trial is ________.
    1. Deposition
    2. Citation
    3. Warrant
    4. Expert testimony
  33. A statute that enforces private right and liabilities, as differentiated from criminal law is called a ________.
    1. statute of limitations
    2. civil law
    3. medical arbitration
    4. no correct answer
  34. Violation or omission of a legal or moral duty is called ________.
    1. Negligence
    2. Breach of duty
    3. Defamation
    4. Malpractice
  35. A deliberate physical attack upon a person is called ________.
    1. Assault
    2. Battery
    3. Slander
    4. Contributory negligence
  36. Latin for “he who acts through another acts for himself” is called ________.
    1. Res gestae
    2. Qui facit per alium facit per se
    3. Locum tenems
    4. No correct answer
  37. The branch of study of moral issues, questions, and problems arising in the practice of medicine and in biomedical research is called ________.
    1. Bioethics
    2. Litigation
    3. Philosophy
    4. Privileged communication
  38. A statement given concerning some scientific, technical, or professional matter by an expert, such as a physician is called ________.
    1. Litigation
    2. Expert testimony
    3. Medical arbitration
    4. Burden of proof
  39. A patient’s failure to act prudently and reasonable, or doing that which a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances is called ________.
    1. Breach of duty
    2. Assumption of risk
    3. Contributory negligence
    4. No correct answer
  40. Consent to treatment based on a full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of that treatment I called ________.
    1. Contributory negligence
    2. Fraud
    3. Assumption of risk
    4. Proximate cause
  41. Conduct, courtesy, and manners that are customarily used in a medical office by medical professionals are known as ________.
    1. Ethics
    2. Moral therapy
    3. Precocity
    4. Medical etiquette
  42. An intentional perversion of truth for the purpose of inducing another in reliance upon it to part with some valuable thing belonging to him or to surrender a legal right is called ________.
    1. Fraud
    2. Negligence
    3. Assumption of risk
    4. Contributory negligence
  43. To interrupt or discontinue a suit temporarily with the intention of resumption at a later date, or to ask for a continuance is called a ________.
    1. Suspension
    2. Judgment
    3. Civil law
    4. Deposition
  44. Latin for “things decided”—that is, a matter already decided by judicial authority is called ________.
    1. Res judicata
    2. Respondeat superior
    3. Locum tenems
    4. No correct answer
  45. That which in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any new independent cause, produces an event, and without which the injury would not have occurred is called ________.
    1. Negligence
    2. Proximate cause
    3. Assumption of risk
    4. Assault
  46. The presumption or inference of negligence when an accident is otherwise unable to be explained in terms of ordinary and  known experience is called _________.
    1. Res judicata
    2. Res ipsa loquitur
    3. Locum tenems
    4. Res gestae
  47. Failure to achieve an agreed upon result, even when the highest degree of skill has been used, is called ________.
    1. Breach of contract
    2. Negligence
    3. Proximate cause
    4. Ethics
  48. What license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe or administer controlled substances?
    1. Lawyers
    2. Narcotic
    3. Business
    4. Occupational
  49. Unauthorized disclosure of information regarding any patient to a third party may result in ________.
    1. Civil law liability
    2. Medical liability
    3. Invasion of privacy
    4. Defamation of character
  50. Medical research is often published in medical journals that are evaluated by members of the medical community through a process known as ________.
    1. Professional review
    2. Hospital review
    3. Peer review
    4. Promethium review
  51. Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as ________.
    1. Procedure
    2. Admissions
    3. Cost
    4. Quality
  52. A fraudulent signature is called ________.
    1. Endorsement
    2. Forgery
    3. Fraud
    4. Forbearance
  53. ________ are defined as what are right and wrong.
    1. Rules
    2. Ethics
    3. Laws
    4. Guidelines
  54. Which of the following might involve a decision based upon bioethics?
    1. Reporting physical, emotional or mental abuse
    2. Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent
    3. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
    4. Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient
  55. A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which of the following?
    1. Gunshot wound
    2. Anorexia
    3. Drug addiction
    4. Pregnancy
  56. It is _________ to deny treatment to an HIV infected patient.
    1. Illegal
    2. Moral
    3. Unethical
    4. Ethical
  57. ________ is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information.
    1. OSHA
    2. CLIA
    3. CMS
    4. HIPAA
  58. In the health care field the acronym HIPAA stands for ________.
    1. Health Information Adjustment Association
    2. History Inquiry of Professional Assertive Assistance
    3. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
    4. Health Inquiry for Permission of Accountability Association
  59. The statement “A physician shall respect the law” is a part of the ________
    1. AAA Code of Ethics
    2. AMA Code of Principles
    3. Preamble to the constitution of the United States
    4. AMA Code of Ethics
  60. Which of these generally results from an act of carelessness, without intent to harm?
    1. Breach of confidentiality
    2. Malpractice
    3. Slander
    4. Manslaughter

 

Answer Key

  1. C
  2. A
  3. C
  4. D
  5. B
  6. B
  7. C
  8. B
  9. B
  10. C
  11. B
  12. C
  13. C
  14. A
  15. C
  16. D
  17. B
  18. C
  19. D
  20. B
  21. B
  22. A
  23. C
  24. A
  25. D
  26. C
  27. C
  28. B
  29. A
  30. B
  31. A
  32. A
  33. B
  34. B
  35. B
  36. B
  37. A
  38. B
  39. C
  40. C
  41. D
  42. A
  43. A
  44. A
  45. B
  46. B
  47. A
  48. B
  49. C
  50. C
  51. B
  52. B
  53. B
  54. C
  55. A
  56. C
  57. D
  58. C
  59. D
  60. D

 

General Testing Skills Quiz

Taking tests is not only something you should prepare for, but something you can actually be good at, almost regardless of the material.  Of course you can’t expect to ace a test you know nothing about, but there are tactics for test taking that can help you choose the most likely answer.  This means you aren’t just guessing when you don’t know the answer, but you are picking an answer that is more likely than just a guess to be the right answer.  These rules ONLY apply when you don’t know the answer at all.  No matter how much you study for the NCCT or any other exam, you are likely to get at least a few questions that you are clueless about.  If you follow these rule, you will at least increase your chances of getting the right answer even if you don’t know it:

When you aren’t sure of a correct answer AND HAVE TO GUESS……

1. Choose the most general answer when other choices are specific.

2. Choose the longest answer when others are much shorter.

3. Choose the answer with a middle value when other answers are higher or lower.

4. Choose neither of the similar answers.

5. Choose one of two opposite answers.

6. Choose the answer that agrees grammatically. For ex: a, and an = singular, are = plural.

7. Choose the answer most synonymous with key words in the question or statement.

8. Count the number of blanks in fill-in questions or statements.

9. Choose from among familiar answers. Avoid unknown options.

10. Choose the most logical answer to you.

11. Avoid answers with absolutes in them. Examples are always, never, every, none, all, only.)

Now that you know the rules, try to apply them to the following test which includes only one answer you MIGHT know (on A&P).  The rest are likely things you have never heard of, but you should be able to get 100%, or at least close to it, by applying the above rules.  Take the test on your own and then at the end check out the answers and the explanation at the end to see how you did and why.

Print the test

1. The word tale is synonymous with:

A. lyric

B. fable

C. legend

D. both B and C are correct

E. none of the above is correct

 

2. Bendaline’s opera “The Three Bells” focuses on

A. marital problems

B. domestic strife

C. the problem of aging

D. conflict between an old man and his wife

 

3. The government department responsible for judicial affairs of government is

A. the U.S. Department of Justice

B. the U.S. Department of Foreign Services

C. the U.S. Department of Agriculture

D. the U.S. Department of Interior

 

4. Which is an example of an instrument that measures the level of self-esteem?

A. the Strong-Campbell Vocational Interest Blank

B. the Kidder Personal Preference Inventory

C. the Vassey Adult Intelligence Scale

D. the Tennessee Self-Concept Scale

 

5. The economic policy practiced by both Britain and France during the seventeenth century that

restricted trade by the colonies to the mother country was:

A. salutory neglect

B. Feudalism

C. socialism

D. capitalism

E. mercantilism

 

6. Which of the following is typically or most often, expressed by those organizational members

classified as “professional” employees?

A. A high degree of antagonism towards management

B. A perception that personal goals conflict with goals of management, or organization as a whole

C. Frustration at being grossly unpaid

 

7. All of these statements about mitosis are true except it

A. is a process of nuclear cell division

B. it has 4 phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

C. is the type of cell division common only to germ cells

D. is a vital process of growth and development

 

8. At the present time, there are relatively few women in positions of corporate management. One

reason is:

A. until 5 years ago, no women had completed a masters degree in business

B. research has proven that women do not possess any skills required for corporate leadership

C. women have no interest in pursuing management careers

D. there are a general lack of formal and informal training programs to develop women managers

 

9. The main reason early settlers did not assimilate the culture of the American Indians was

A. the American Indians had no culture

B. religious and ideological differences were too great

C. most early settlers were captured by Indians

D. the Indian fighting methods were too primitive

 

10. A salve made of jipsen weed is put on an inflamed area of the skin because jipsen

A. has a toxic effect

B. heals every kind of wound

C. has no effect on inflamed areas

 

11. Tenable means:

A. ridiculous

B. believable

C. ludicrous

D. absurd

 

12. Sagandorf’s conclusion regarding human learning is that

A. learning ability of individuals is definitely influenced by their physical condition.

B. either extreme tiredness or ill health can diminish one’s ability to learn.

C. learning is not affected by a learner’s physical condition.

D. all of the above

 

13. Z. T. Billingsley’s novel, Urban Living deals with:

A. migration to the countryside

B. the stresses associated with metropolitan living es

C. our natural resources

D. modern business techniqu

 

14. The gypsy butterfly is characterized by its ability to:

A. make rapid changes in coloration

B. stabilize in large colonies

C. confines itself to a relatively limited geographical area

D. differentiates scents

 

15. Fantasy and make-believe are pastimes that are:

A. experienced only by the very young

B. always indicates psychological instability

C. never demonstrated by intelligent adults

D. sometimes beneficial when moderate in dimension

 

16. The biological significance of the chambered nautilus is:

A. no other crustacean has ever propelled itself by jet blasts

B. it has inhabited only those sea depths man cannot reach

C. it is essentially unchanged by evolutionary processes

D. no living specimen has ever been found

 

17. The 17th century French biologist La Seur is credited with

A. discovering a cure for lung cancer

B. discovering a vaccine to prevent polio

C. disproving Darwin’s theory of evolution

D. hybridizing several flowering plants

 

18. The Roman philosopher Tuscus believed that

A. the fall of Rome was inevitable

B. nothing could be done to save the Roman Empire

C. man, properly aware of the impending fall, could prevent it

D. the of decay and decline of Roman rule was irreversible

 

19. The bill of the woodpecker robin is

A. blunted and short C. virtually nonexistent

B. sharp and long D. curved and small

 

20. Which of these statements related to Emily Dickinson is correct?

A. For a part of her life, she was a recluse.

B. She always wrote poetry dealing with melancholia

C. She never exhibited any talent for poetry other than free verse

D. She always dealt with the most trivial themes of existence in her poetry

 

Answer Key

1. d 6. b 11. b 16. c

2. c 7. c 12. c 17. d

3. a 8. d 13. b 18. c

4. d 9. b 14. a 19. b

5. e 10. d 15. d 20. a

Free NCCT Flashcards

Printable Flashcards

 

An act that violates criminal law is called _________. Crime
What license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe or administer controlled substance? Narcotic
A Latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is ________. Non compos mentis
Violation or omission of a legal or moral duty is called _______. Breach of duty
It is ________ to deny treatment to an HIV infected patients. Unethical
A major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is __________. Felony
Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as _________. Incompetence
To prevent the insured from receiving a duplicate payment for losses under more than one insurance policy is called __________. Coordination of Benefits
Body language, body posture, space and distance are all examples of _________. Non-verbal communications
A patient receiving ambulatory care at a hospital or other health facility without being admitted as a bed patient is called a(n) _________. Outpatient
Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person’s property is ___________. Negligence
A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________. At the left hand margin
What office instrument is designed to receive and send printed documents via the telephone? Fax machine
Health insurance that provides protection against the high cost of treating severe or lengthy illnesses or disabilities is called __________. Catastrophic
The branch of study of moral issues, questions, and problems arising in the practice of medicine and in biomedical research is called ___________. Bioethics
An injury that prevents a worker from performing one or more of the regular functions of his job would be known as a __________. Partial Disability
The withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is _________. Abandonment
____________ are defined as what are right and wrong. Ethics
Latin for “things decided” -that is, a matter already decided by judicial authority is called __________. Res judicata
A health program for people age 65 and older under social security is called _________. Medicare
Holding or detaining a person against his will is called __________. False imprisonment
An organization that offers health insurance at a fixed monthly premium with little or no deductible and works through a primary care provider is called a(n) ____________. Health Maintenance Organization
Business or handwritten mail that weighs less than 11 ounces is known as __________ class mail. First
An amount the insured must pay before policy benefits begin is called ___________. Deductible
A request for payment under an insurance contractor bond is called a(n) _____________. Claim
___________ is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentially of patients’ health information. HIPAA
A person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent is called a(n) _________. Emancipated minor
The process of changing words into numbers so that computers can be used in processing insurance claims is called _________. Coding
A civilian health and medical program of the uniform services is called ___________. Tri-Care
The statement ” A physician shall respect the law” is a part of the __________. AMA Code of Ethics
A system whereby large quantities of data can be accessed, searched, sorted, and arranged very rapidly by computer is called a(n) _________ system. Database management
An unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another is __________. Assault
An unexpected event which may cause injury is called __________. Accident
Failure to achieve an agreed upon result, even when the highest degree of skill has been used, is called __________. Breach of contract
The number of Employees Withholding Exemption Certificate is ___________. W-4
When handling incoming mail the medical assistant should ________. Attach the envelope to the correspondence
A computer monitor, hard drive, and printer are known as ________. Hardware
One who belongs to a group insurance plan is called ___________. Subscriber
The computer key DEL command means ___________. Delete
A notice of insurance claim or proof of loss must be filed within a designated ____________ or it can be denied. Time Limit
An agreement by which a patient assigns to another party the right to receive payment from a third party for the service the patient has received is called __________. Assignments of benefits
Negligence by a professional person is called _______. Malpractice
A form of insurance paid by the employer providing cash benefits to workers injured or disabled in the course of employment is called _________. Workers’ Compensation
Insurance plans that pay a physician’s full charge if it does not exceed his normal charge or does not exceed the amount normally charged for the service is called ___________. Usual, Customary and Reasonable
When caring for patients with physical disabilities, which of these is not an appropriate consideration for most? Speak loudly
A violation of a person’s right not to have his or her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of made public without giving consent is _________. Invasion of privacy
When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark? Colon
Latin for “things done; deeds”, the facts and circumstances attendant to the act in question would be called _________. Res gestae
The Tri-Care fiscal year is from ________. October 1 to September 1
The health worker is protected by law if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonable as compared with fellow workers. This is called _______. Reasonable care
A rule of conduct made by a government body is _________. Law
Conduct, courtesy, and manners that are customarily used in a medical office by medical professionals are known as ____________. Medical etiquette
Which of these generally results from an act of carelessness, without an intent to harm? Breach of confidentiality
An impartial panel established to listen to and investigate patient’s complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called a ____________ committee. Medical grievance
An incoming call should be answered by the ________ ring. Third
A person or institution that gives medical care is a(n) ___________. Provider
The presumption or inference of negligence when an accident is otherwise unable to be explained in terms of ordinary and known experience is called __________. Res ipsa loquitur
A letter should be folded in _________ using a #10 envelope? Thirds face-up
Payment for hospital charges incurred by an insured person because of injury or illnesses is called __________. Hospital benefits
Parcel post or ________ class mail is used for bound printed matter, film, & sound recordings. Fourth
A skilled nursing facility for patients receiving specialized care after discharge from a hospital is called ________. Extended care facility
A fraudulent signature is called _________. Forgery
A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which of the following? Gunshot wound
Testimony of a witness under oath and written down before trial for possible use when the case comes to trial is ____________. Deposition
An agent of an insurance company who solicits or initiates contracts for insurance coverage and services, and is the policyholder for the insurer is called __________. Insurance agent
To interrupt or discontinue a suit temporarily with the intention or resumption at a later date, or to ask for a continuance is called a __________. Suspension
Benefits that are made in the form of cash payments are known as ____________. Indemnities
When handling a patient complaint which one of the following would be most appropriate? Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes
A person who represents either party of an insurance claim is the _____________. Adjuster
Which one of the following items in not needed when taking a routine phone message? Caller’s drivers license #
Payment made periodically to keep an insurance policy in force is called _____________. Premium
A method of charging whereby a physician presents a bill for each service rendered is called __________. Fee-of-Service
The most common type of medical tort liability is __________. Negligence
A writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony is a(n) _________. Subpoena
A patient’s failure to act prudently and reasonably, or doing that which a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances is called __________. Contributory negligence
Before placing a telephone caller on hold it is appropriate to ___________. Ask if you may put the caller on hold, wait for the caller to confirm they can wait, & obtain a return phone number
__________ is the study of words and their relationship to other words in a sentence. Grammar
In insurance, greater coverage of diseases or an accident, and greater indemnity payment in comparison with a limited clause is called ____________. Comprehensive
A rider added to a policy to provide additional benefits for certain conditions is called ___________. Dread disease rider
The computer’s directional arrow keys _______. Move the cursor, right, left, up or down
A bed patient in a hospital is called a(n) __________. Inpatient
Medical research is often published in medical journals that are evaluated by members of the medical community through a process known as ___________. Peer review
The term for the technology that tells a computer what to do is known as the _________. Software
Referring to computers, the term “user friendly” refers to __________. How easy the system is to operate
Information given by a patient to medical personnel which cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is ________. Privileged communication
Injuring the name and reputation of another person by making false statements to a third person is __________. Defamation
A newsletter that weighs less than one pound would be considered ___________ class mail. Third
Right and wrong conduct is known as __________. Ethics
The ability to see things from another person’s point of view is ___________. Empathy
Responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee is __________. Respondeat superior
A statue that enforces private right and liabilities, as differentiated from criminal law is called a __________. Civil law
Latin for “he who acts through another acts for himself” is called ___________. Qui facit per alium facit per se
Making a duplicate file to protect computer information from being lost is called making a ___________. Backup
The final decision of a court in an action or suit is __________. Judgment
A sum of money provided in an insurance policy, payable for covered services is called _________. Benefits
A recap sheet that accompanies a Medicare or Medicaid check, showing breakdown and explanation of payment on a claim is called __________. Explanation of benefits
Permission granted by a person voluntarily and his right mind is _________. Consent
A type of insurance whereby the insured pays a specific amount per unit of service and the insurer pays the rest of the cost is called ________. Co-payment
An interval after a payment is due to the insurance company in which the policy holder may make payments, and still the policy remains in effect is called ___________. Grace period
One who institutes a lawsuit is ________. Plaintiff
A legal statement of how an individual’s property is to be distributed after death is __________. Will
A doctor who agrees to accept an insurance companies pre-established fee as the maximum amount to be collected is called ____________. Participating Physician
When working with patients from a culture different than your own, one should ________. Show respect for their culture
A person being sued is called the _________. Defendant
An intentional perversion of truth for the purpose of inducing another in reliance upon it to part with some valuable thing belonging to him or to surrender a legal right is called ___________. Fraud
Consent to treatment based on full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of that treatment is called ________. Assumption of risk
When a patient has health insurance, the percentage of covered services that is the responsibility of the patient to pay is known as ____________. Coinsurance
A statement given concerning some scientific, technical, or professional matter by an expert, such as a physician is called ___________. Expert testimony
Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as __________ review. Admissions
A deliberate physical attack upon a person is called __________. Battery
That which in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any new independent cause, produces an event, and without which the injury would not have occurred is called _________. Proximate cause
The breaking of a law, promise, or duty is called _________. Breach
Prior to answering an incoming call the medical assistant should _________. Smile
A previous injury, disease or physical condition that existed before the health insurance policy was issued is called ____________. Preexisting Condition
In the health care field the acronym HIPAA stands for ________. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
The time established for filing law suits is ________. Statue of limitations
A wrong committed against another person or the person’s property is a ___________. Tort
An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is ____________. Contract
Unauthorized disclosure of information regarding any patient to a third party may result in _________. Invasion of privacy
Insurance that is meant to offset medical expenses resulting from a catastrophic illness is called ____________. Major Medical

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