Anatomy & Physiology Practice Test

skeleton

1 Most bones found in the arms and legs are ________ bones.

a. short
b. long
c. flat
d. irregular

2 The patella is found in the
a. knee
b. elbow
c. neck
d. head

3 The major vein that drains the liver is called the ________ vein.
a. hepatic
b. axillary
c. ulnar
d. femoral

4 Identify #7 in “skeletal illustration.”
a. scapula
b. sternum
c. clavicle
d. maxilla

heart-final5 The humerus is found in the ________.
a. leg
b. arm
c. back
d. neck

6 The kidneys, bladder and urethra are part of the ________ system.
a. urinary
b. reproductive
c. respiratory
d. muscular

7 Inflammation of the appendix is called ________.
a. pancreatitis
b. appendicitis
c. cholecystitis
d. diverticulitis

8 The sebaceous glands, hair, skin and nails make up the ________ system.
a. nervous system
b. cardiovascular system
c. sensory
d. integumentary

9 The zygomatic bone is found in the ________.
a. head
b. chest
c. leg
d. knee

muscles10 The tiny finger-like projections found in the duodenum are called ________.
a. ulcers
b. villi
c. hemorrhoids
d. hernias

11 The metacarpals are found in the ________.
a. foot
b. hand
c. back
d. chest

12 The ulna is found in the ________.
a. back
b. foot
c. leg
d. arm

13 A major function of long bones is the formation of ________.
a. white blood cells
b. red blood cells
c. calcium
d. cellulite

14 A disorder in which “stones” are found in the gallbladder is called ________.
a. cholecystitis
b. intestinal obstruction
c. hepatitis
d. cholelithiasis

15 The brain, spinal cord and nerves make up the _______ system.
a. skeletal
b. nervous
c. sensory
d. endocrine

16 The trachea divides into ________ as it enters the lungs.
a. pharynx
b. trachea
c. bronchi
d. larynx

17 The mandible is found in the ________.
a. chest
b. head
c. foot
d. leg

18 The upper middle part of the abdomen is called the ________.
a. hypogastric region
b. epigastric region
c. umbilical region
d. none of the above

19 The sphenoid bone is found in the ________.
a. foot
b. chest
c. leg
d. head

20 Identify #10 in “skeletal illustration.”
a. talus
b. phalanges
c. patella
d. metatarsals

21 Weak muscle walls that allow tissue to push through is called ________.
a. an ulcer
b. a hernia
c. a hemorrhoid
d. diarrhea

22 An abnormal opening of the septum of the heart is called ________.
a. stenosis
b. septal defect
c. phlebitis
d. heart murmur

23 A healthy adult excretes about ________ of urine daily.
a. 1000 to 1500 milliliters
b. 5 to 100 milliliters
c. 4000 to 6000 milliliters
d. 100 to 500 milliliters

24 Identify #8 in “muscle illustration.”
a. quadriceps femoris
b. sartoris
c. tibialis anterior
d. peroneus longus

25 The wind pipe is also called the ________.
a. larynx
b. pharynx
c. trachea
d. lungs

26 Food is chewed in the mouth where it is mixed with a substance called ________.
a. amino acids
b. saliva
c. fatty acids
d. none of the above

27 Identify #1 in “muscle illustration.”
a. trapezius
b. deltoid
c. triceps brachii
d. pectoralis major

28 What is the name of the tube that is inserted into a patients’ nostril and down the throat to the stomach?
a. test tube
b. nasogastric tube
c. irrigation tube
d. none of the above

29 Which is a chronic disease of the liver?
a. hiatal hernia
b. cirrhosis
c. cholecystitis
d. pancreatitis

30 All of the following are sense organs EXCEPT ________.
a. ears
b. eyes
c. teeth
d. nose

31 The major artery that supplies the upper portion of the arm is the ________ artery.
a. brachial
b. carotid
c. ulnar
d. iliac

32 Identify #3 in “skeletal illustration.”
a. radius
b. clavicle
c. humerus
d. ulna

33 Lesions of the mucous membrane in the stomach are called ________ ulcers.
a. gastric
b. intestinal
c. duodenal
d. follicular

34 Contraction of the right atrium forces blood through the tricuspid valve into the _________ ventricle.
a. left
b. top
c. right
d. inner

35 Painful voiding is termed _________.
a. urine burn
b. dysuria
c. hydronephrosis
d. cystitis

36 The right ventricle pumps used blood to the lungs via the ________ artery.
a. superior
b. vena cava
c. pulmonary edema
d. atria

37 Identify #2 in “skeletal illustration.”
a. clavicle
b. sternum
c. scapula
d. ilium

38 Proper functioning of the internal environment of the body is called ________.
a. homeostasis
b. dysfunction
c. hemorrhage
d. euphoria

39 Nasal mucosa inflammation is called ________.
a. nasal polyps
b. sinusitis
c. rhinitis
d. pleurisy

40 The fibula is found in the ________.
a. leg
b. arm
c. foot
d. hand

41 A coronary occlusion causing chest pain that radiates through the left arm, shoulder, jaw or neck due to lack of blood supply to the heart is called ________.
a. angina pectoris
b. arteriolosclerosis
c. atherosclerosis
d. hypertension

42 Fluid escaping into the thoracic cavity is called ________.
a. pulmonary edema
b. pleural effusion
c. emphysema
d. pneumonia

43 Pressure sores on the skin that have become infected are called ________.
a. decubitus
b. carbuncles
c. furuncles
d. decubitus blisters

44 Inflammation of the gums is called ________.
a. stomatitis
b. gingivitis
c. dental inflammation
d. thrush

45 What is the central middle area of the abdomen called?
a. hypogastric region
b. epigastric region
c. umbilical region
d. none of the above

46 Retinal inflammation is called ________.
a. retinitis
b. peritonitis
c. colitis
d. hernia

47 The pubis is found in the the ________.
a. pelvis
b. chest
c. neck
d. foot

48 The study of the function of organs, tissues and cells is called ________.
a. physiology
b. anatomy
c. histology
d. gross anatomy

49 Inflammation of the mucosal lining of the vagina is called ________.
a. phlehmon
b. vaginitis
c. pyorrhea
d. thrush

50 The major artery to the abdomen is the ________ artery.
a. celiac
b. carotid
c. brachial
d. iliac

51 Identify #4 in “skeletal illustration.”
a. femur
b. sacrum
c. ilium
d. coccyx

52 The second portion of the small intestine is called the ________.
a. decalvant
b. sigmoid
c. duodenum
d. jejunum

53 The forearm is flexed and supinated by the ________ muscle.
a. deltoid
b. biceps brachii
c. rectus fermoris
d. vastus lateralis

54 An inability to control urine passage from the bladder is called ________.
a. specimen
b. urine analysis
c. urinary incontinence
d. dripping

55 The medical term for a nosebleed is ________.
a. epistaxis
b. sinusitis
c. pleurisy
d. coryza

56 The condition in which the nasal septum turns away from the midline is called ________.
a. sinusitis
b. deviated septum
c. dislocated sinus
d. nasal polyp

57 Identify #4 in “muscle illustration.”
a. semitendinosus
b. piriformis
c. adductor magnus
d. gluteus medius

58 Branches of the bundle branches in the heart that transmit impulses to the ventricle walls , causing contraction, are called ________.
a. bundle of HIS
b. purkinje fibers
c. left bundle branches
d. right bundle branches

59 A pregnancy in which the ovum develops outside of the uterus is called ________.
a. eclampsia
b. toxemia
c. ectopic
d. PID

60 The major vein coming from the head and brain is called the ________ vein.
a. jugular
b. vertebral
c. cephalic
d. ulnar

61 Inflammation of the pancreas is called ________.
a. pancreatitis
b. colitis
c. diverticulitis
d. cholecystitis

62 The major vein from the kidneys is called the ________ vein.
a. hepatic
b. renal
c. cephalic
d. femoral

63 The vertebrae are found in the ________.
a. head
b. back
c. leg
d. arm

64 The major artery going to the thorax is called the ________ artery.
a. renal
b. intercostal
c. radial
d. aorta

65 Inflammation of the pleura is called ________.
a. pneumonia
b. pleurisy
c. atelectasis
d. pleural effusion

66 Identify #1 in “skeletal illustration.”
a. nasal
b. zygomatic
c. temporal
d. radius

67 Dilated veins of the rectum are called ________.
a. hemorrhoids
b. hepatitis
c. hernias
d. none of the above

68 Chronic colon inflammation is called ________.
a. colitis
b. colonitis
c. pancreatitis
d. none of the above

69 Identify #3 in “muscle illustration.”
a. brachioradialis
b. external oblique
c. teres major
d. latissimus dorsi

70 The tibia is found in the ________.
a. foot
b. arm
c. back
d. leg

71 The major artery supplying the bladder, rectum and reproductive organs is called the ________ artery.
a. iliac
b. celiac
c. carotid
d. ulnar

72 The major artery supplying the foot is the ________ artery.
a. dorsalis pedis
b. popliteal
c. iliac
d. renal

73 Obstruction of a coronary artery, causing death of myocardium due to blockage of blood supply is called ________.
a. hypertension
b. myocardial infarction
c. arteriosclerosis
d. primary hypertension

74 The lower middle portion of the abdomen is called the ________.
a. hypogastric region
b. epigastric region
c. umbilical region
d. none of the above

75 The major artery to the kidney is the ________ artery.
a. celiac
b. renal
c. ulnar
d. brachial

76 The major artery going to the head is called the ________ artery
a. brachial
b. carotid
c. ulnar
d. renal

77 One of the arteries supplying the hand and forearm is called the ________.
a. intercostal
b. ulnar
c. brachial
d. renal

78 Mild-flavored foods that are easy to digest constitute a ________ diet.
a. clear liquid
b. low calorie
c. diabetic
d. bland

79 Identify #5 in “muscle illustration.”
a. gluteus maximus
b. gracilis
c. transversus abdominis
d. adductor magnus

80 Air enters respiratory tract at the ________.
a. larynx
b. lung
c. nasal cavity
d. bronchus

81 The metatarsals are found in the ________.
a. foot
b. hand
c. leg
d. arm

82 The smaller leg bone is called the ________.
a. fibula
b. tibia
c. patella
d. femur

83 Identify #6 in “skeletal illustration.”
a. talus
b. femur
c. tibia
d. fibula

84 Varicose veins in the anal canal or outside of the external sphincter are called ________.
a. hemorrhoids
b. villi
c. peritonitis
d. diarrhea

85 The ________ is located between the pharynx and trachea and contains the vocal cords.
a. larynx
b. pharynx
c. nasal cavity
d. trachea

86 Lateral movement of the limbs away from the body is called ________.
a. extension
b. internal rotation
c. abduction
d. supination

87 Identify #5 in the “heart illustration.”
a. apex
b. endocardium
c. aorta
d. interventricular septum

88 Bones, tendons, joints and cartilage are found in the ________ system.
a. skeletal
b. integumentary
c. muscular
d. endocrine

89 Deoxygenated blood enters the ________ via the right atrium.
a. vena cava
b. lung
c. heart
d. pharynx

90 The radius is found in the ________.
a. arm
b. leg
c. foot
d. hand

91 Identify #9 in skeletal illustration.”
a. femur
b. sacrum
c. patella
d. fibula

92 What is the medical term for the accumulation of air in the pleural cavity?
a. pneumonia
b. pneumothorax
c. asthma
d. pleural effusion

93 The major vein draining the pelvis is called the ________ vein.
a. common iliac
b. hepatic
c. renal
d. ulnar

94 An inflamed sinus cavity is called ________.
a. sinusitis
b. epistaxis
c. asthma
d. emphysema

95 Whooping cough is also called ________.
a. croup
b. pertussis
c. pleurisy
d. pneumonia

96 Identify #3 in the “heart illustration.”
a. purkinje fibers
b. interventricular septum
c. myocardium
d. apex

97 Producing a picture of the heart’s structure using ultrasound is called ________.
a. cardiac catheterization
b. a cardiac stress test
c. echocardiography
d. electrocardiography

98 Identify #2 in “muscle illustration.”
a. zygomatic
b. brachialis
c. trapezius
d. sternocleidomastoid

99 Identify #5 in “skeletal illustration.”
a. tibia
b. femur
c. fibula
d. patella

100 The study of bones is called ________.
a. osteology
b. morphology
c. neurology
d. none of the above

101 The lymphatic organs, blood vessels and heart are found in the ________ system.
a. respiratory
b. cardiovascular
c. digestive
d. urinary

102 The stomach, mouth, pancreas and liver are parts of the ________ system.
a. reproductive
b. sensory
c. digestive
d. muscular

103 Identify #6 in “muscle illustration.”
a. deltoid
b. biceps brachii
c. trapezius
d. brachioradialis

104 Inflammation of the gallbladder is called ________.
a. cystitis
b. colitis
c. diverticulitis
d. cholecystitis

105 Bones ________.
a. are meant to bend easily
b. provide support and structure
c. filled with gas
d. solid calcium structures

106 The nose, larynx, pharynx and trachea are parts of the ________ system.
a. skeletal
b. respiratory
c. nervous
d. sensory

107 Identify #2 in the “heart illustration.”
a. inferior vena cava
b. superior vena cava
c. left pulmonary artery
d. aorta

108 Identify #8 in “skeletal illustration.”
a. clavicle
b. humerus
c. sternum
d. sacrum

109 The collar bone is called the ________.
a. carpals
b. clavicle
c. fossa
d. femur

110 Identify #1 in the “heart illustration.”
a. pulmonary vein
b. superior vena cava
c. aorta
d. right atrium

111 The major vein coming from the upper arm is the ________ vein.
a. jugular
b. brachial
c. cephalic
d. femoral

112 The major artery supplying the knee is the ________ artery.
a. popliteal
b. dorsalis pedis
c. ulnar
d. carotid

113 Identify #4 in the “heart illustration.”
a. apex
b. tricuspid valve
c. interventricular septum
d. endocardium

114 Carcinogenic means something is ________ causing.
a. diarrhea
b. disease
c. cough
d. cancer

115 Unilateral paralysis following brain damage is called ________.
a. hemiplegia
b. quadriplegia
c. paraplegia
d. sciatica

116 Removal of the stomach contents via a nasogastric tube is called ________.
a. gavage
b. lavage
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

117 The femur is found in the ________.
a. leg
b. arm
c. foot
d. neck

118 The maxilla is found in the ________.
a. head
b. foot
c. chest
d. arm

119 The bones of the wrist and ankle are called ________ bones.
a. long
b. short
c. flat
d. sesamoid

120 Identify #7 in “muscle illustration.”
a. deltoid
b. biceps brachii
c. trapezius
d. pectoralis major
Answer key:

1 b
2 a
3 a
4 b
5 b
6 a
7 b
8 d
9 a
10 b
11 b
12 d
13 b
14 d
15 b
16 c
17 b
18 b
19 d
20 c
21 b
22 b
23 a
24 a
25 c
26 b
27 b
28 b
29 b
30 c
31 a
32 c
33 a
34 c
35 b
36 c
37 c
38 a
39 c
40 a
41 a
42 b
43 a
44 b
45 c
46 a
47 a
48 a
49 b
50 a
51 b
52 d
53 b
54 c
55 a
56 b
57 d
58 b
59 c
60 c
61 a
62 b
63 b
64 b
65 b
66 c
67 a
68 a
69 d
70 d
71 a
72 a
73 b
74 a
75 b
76 b
77 b
78 d
79 a
80 c
81 a
82 a
83 d
84 a
85 a
86 c
87 a
88 a
89 c
90 a
91 a
92 b
93 a
94 a
95 b
96 c
97 c
98 c
99 a
100 a
101 b
102 c
103 b
104 d
105 b
106 b
107 a
108 a
109 b
110 b
111 b
112 a
113 c
114 d
115 a
116 b
117 a
118 a
119 b
120 d

NCCT Practice Test A

1. WHAT INJECTION ANGLE SHOULD YOU USE FOR INTRAMUSCULAR?
A. 45
B. 10
C. 90

2. NORMAL B/P FOR AN ADULT?
A. 160/90
B. 120/80

3. A LATIN TERM SIGNIFYING A PERSON IS NOT OF SOUND MIND
A. RES GESTAE
B. NON COMPOS MENTIS

4.  ANOTHER WORD FOR VISIT
A. ENCOUNTER
B. APPOINTMENT

5.  WHEN ANSWERING THE PHONE YOU SHOULD ALWAYS ANSWER BY WHAT RING?
A. 1ST
B. 2ND
C. 3RD

6.  WORD PART ECTOMY MEANS?
A. SURGICAL REPAIR
B. SURGICAL REMOVAL
C. SURGICAL INCISION

7.  AN ANALGESIC IS USED FOR?
A. SWELLING
B. MILD PAIN
C. HEART ATTACK

8.  NEGLIGENCE BY A PROFESSIONAL PERSON IS CALLED?
A. SLANDER
B. MALPRACTICE
C. INVALID WORK ETHIC

9.  WORD PART  ITIS MEANS?
A. INFECTION
B. PAIN
C. INFLAMMATION

10.  WHEN ASSESEING A SITUATION FOR THE PRIORITY OF TREATMENT?
A. TRAUMA
B. TRIAGE
C. TOURNIQUET

11.  WHAT IS A SYMPTOM?
A. PAIN THAT CAN BE OBSERVED ONLY BY THE PATIENT
B. PAIN THAT CAN BE OBSERVED BY OTHERS

12.  WHAT IS UNPRIVILEGED TOUCHING OF ONE PERSON BY ANOTHER?
A. ASSAULT
B. BATTERY
C. MALPRACTICE

13.  WHAT IS TACHYCARDIA?
A. ABNORMALLY DECREASED HEART RATE
B. ABNORMALLY LOW B/P
C. ABNORMALLY INCREASED HEART RATE

14.  WHAT IS HYPOTENSION?
A. LOWER THAN NORMAL B/P
B. HIGHER THAN NORMAL B/P
C. HIGHER THAN NORMAL RESPIRATORY RATE

15.  LATIN TERM MEANING THE RESPONSIBILTY OF AN EMPLOYER FOR THE ACTS OF AN EMPLOYEE?
A. RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR
B. RES ISPA LOQUITUR

16.  WHAT LICENSE MUST A PHYSICIAN OBTAIN BEFORE HE CAN PRESCRIBE OR DISPENSE CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES?
A. PHARMACY
B. DRUG
C. NARCOTICS

17.  WHAT IS AN EMETIC?
A. A DRUG THAT ENDUCES VOMITING
B. A DRUG THAT PREVENTS VOMITING
C. TO VOMIT

18.  WHAT IS A FRAUDULENT SIGNATURE?
A. FRAUD
B. UNETHICAL
C. FORGERY

19.  WHAT IS AN ANTICOAGULENT?
A. A DRUG THAT PROMOTES CLOTTING
B. A DRUG THAT PREVENTS CLOTTING
C. A DRUG THAT PREVENTS BRUISING

20.  WORD PART RRHEA MEANS?
A. SURGICAL SUTURING
B. SURGICAL REMOVAL
C. FLOW OR DISCHARGE

21.  WHAT TERM MEANS DIFFICULT OR LABORED BREATHING?
A. APNEA
B. DYSPNEA
C. EUPNEA

22.  THE PROCESS OF CHANGING WORDS INTO NUMBERS FOR INSURANCE PURPOSES?
A. DIAGNOSTIC NUMBERING
B. CODING

23.  WHEN IS OK TO PUT THE CALLER ON HOLD?
A. WHEN YOU HAVE THEIR NAME AND NUMBER
B. WHEN YOU HAVE AN EMERGENCY
C. WHEN YOU HAVE THEIR EMERGENCY

24.  WHY USE A SYNTHETIC CAST OVER A PLASTIC OR PLASTER CAST?
A. COST LESS
B. CHEAPER MORE FLEXIBLE
C. THEY ARE LIGHT,STRONGER,AND MORE WATER RESISTANT

25.  WHAT INJECTION ANGLE SHOULD YOU USE TO ADMINISTER A SUBCUTANEOUS INJECTION?
A. 10 DEGREE
B. 90 DEGREE
C. 45 DEGREE

26.  WHAT IS AN INSURANCE CLAIM FOR ALL GOVERENTMENT CLAIMS?
A. CMS 1300
B. CMS 1500
C. CMS 1700

27.  AN UNEXPECTED EVENT THAT MAY CAUSE INJURY?
A. DREAD DISEASE RIDER
B. ACCIDENT
C. CLAUSE EVENT

28.  OXYGEN RATE IS DELIVERED?
A. LITERS PER MINUTE
B. VOLUME PER MINUTE
C. CC PER MINUTE

29.  A DRUG THAT PRODUCES SLEEP?
A. SEDATIVE
B. HYPNOTIC
C. TRANQULIZER

30.  WHEN A PHYSICIAN  MAKES ARRANGEMENTS FOR HEALTH CARE SERVICES?
A. COORDINATION OF CARE
B. COORDINATION OF BENIFITS
C. COORDINATION OF SERVICE

31.  WHAT ARE SMALL ARTERIES CALLED?
A. ARTERIOLES
B. ARTERIALS

32.  WHAT DOES THE TERM GASTRALGIA MEAN?
A. STOMACH FLU
B. STOMACH PAIN
C. STOMACH ULCER

33.  DEOXYGENATED BLOOD ENTERS THE RIGHT ATRIUM OF THE?
A. BRAIN
B. HEART
C. LUNG

34.  HIV STANDS FOR?
A. HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS
B. HUMAN INTRAVENOUS VALVE

35.  WHAT SHOULD BE ON A CONTAINER THAT CONTAINS BLOOD
A. OSHA REGULATIONS
B. HIPPA REGULATIONS
C. BIOHAZARD LABEL

36.  WHAT DRUG IS USED TO RELIEVE ITCHING
A. ANTIPYRETIC
B. ANTIPRURITIC
C. ANTITCH

37.  WORD PART MELAN/O MENAS?
A. GRAY
B. BLUE
C. BLACK

38.  WHAT INJECTION WOULD YOU PERFORM AT A 10-15 DEGREE ANGLE?
A. INTRASKINAL
B. INTRADERMAL
C. INTRAMUSCULAR

39.  WHAT DOES BID STAND FOR?
A. THREES TIEMS A DAY
B. TWICE A DAY
C. INJECTIONS DAILY

40.  HOW MNANY DIGITS CAN A SUB-CLASSIFICATION NUMBER HAVE IN ICD-9CM
A. 5
B. 10
C. 6

41.  ABBREVIATION FOR DROPS
A. GTT OR GT
B. gtt or gt

42.  what color tube top had no additives?
A. blue
B. green
C. red

43.  WORD PART POLIO
A. BLUE
B. GRAY
C. GREEN

44.  HOW MANY LEADS ARE ON A STANDARD ECG?
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12

45.  METATARSALS ARE LOCATED IN THE
A. ARM
B. HAND
C. FOOT

46.  WHICH IS A MEASURE OF VOLUME
A. GRAM
B. METER
C. LITER

47.  WHEN TESTING FOR OCCULT BLOOD WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD YOU USE
A. STOOL SAMPLE
B. BLOOD SAMPLE
C. URINE SAMPLE

48.  HOW LONG CAN A TOURNIQUET REMAIN ON A PATIENTS ARM?
A. 60 MINUTES
B. 1 MINUTE

49.  LEUK/O MEANS ?
A. BLACK
B. WHITE BLOOD CELL
C. WHITE

50.  THE BODY’S NATURAL PACE MAKER?
A. RIGHT ATRIUM
B. S A NODE
C. N A NODE

NCCT Practice Test B

Take This Quiz In Word

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Q.1)       To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) __________.

A.            reorder point

B.            inventory control log

C.            order quantity

D.            all answers are correct

Q.2)       A(n) __________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

A.            inventory control tag

B.            packing slip

C.            purchase order

D.            invoice

Q.3)       Periodically, the medical assistant should check all electrical equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) __________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

A.            inventory log

B.            maintenance log

C.            quality control log

D.            no answers are correct

Q.4)       When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.

A.            transcriptionist

B.            stenographer

C.            decoder

D.            receptionist

Q.5)       Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient by a process known as __________.

A.            procedure review

B.            admissions review

C.            appropriateness review

D.            transfer review

Q.6)       Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

A.            Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

B.            Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

C.            The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

D.            Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

Q.7)       A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?

A.            Gunshot wound

B.            Anorexia

C.            Drug addiction

D.            Pregnancy

Q.8)       Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?

A.            OSHA

B.            CLIA

C.            CMS

D.            HIPAA

Q.9)       A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.

A.            right justified

B.            indented 5 spaces

C.            equally spaced vertically

D.            at the left hand margin

Q.10)     When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?

A.            Comma

B.            Semicolon

C.            Asterisk

D.            Colon

Q.11)     When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

A.            If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level and s/he will calm down.

B.            Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.

C.            Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining; the doctor should handle them.

D.            No correct answer

Q.12)     Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.

A.            non-verbal communication

B.            verbal communication

C.            written communication

D.            all answers are correct

Q.13)     What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

A.            Erase the entry and write in the new appointment.

B.            Put “white-out” over the entry and write on top.

C.            Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials.

D.            Mark through the entry with a single red line.

Q.14)     The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.

A.            covered amount

B.            deductable

C.            explanation of benefits

D.            co-pay

Q.15)     Instructions to an insurance company about where to make payment and to whom are called __________.

A.            payment agreements

B.            assignment of benefits

C.            benefit accommodations

D.            assignment of payments

Q.16)     The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

A.            Social Security number

B.            federal tax identification number

C.            state tax number

D.            insurance ID number

Q.17)     An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.

A.            duration of the appointment

B.            relationship to the patient

C.            Social Security number of the patient

D.            insurance provider’s contact information

Q.18)     A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.

A.            fiscal

B.            financial

C.            fiduciary

D.            accounting

Q.19)     Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.

A.            DEA

B.            EPA

C.            FDA

D.            CDC

Q.20)     Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e. surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient’s insurance policy contract involves a process known as __________.

A.            pre-certification

B.            pre-authorization

C.            pre-determination

D.            pre-existing

Q.21)     In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never __________.

A.            be facing the file cabinets

B.            be able to be viewed by patients

C.            be turned on

D.            be viewed by medical personnel

Q.22)     The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.

A.            lymphatic temperature

B.            axillary temperature

C.            deltoid temperature

D.            delta temperature

Q.23)     What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

A.            Open fracture

B.            Spiral fracture

C.            Greenstick fracture

D.            Closed fracture

Q.24)     The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.

A.            tid

B.            bid

C.            qid

D.            qh

Q.25)     The abbreviation for as needed is __________.

A.            prn

B.            ppn

C.            an

D.            add

Q.26)     The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.

A.            NPO

B.            NBM

C.            NM

D.            nom

Q.27)     Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

A.            Insulin syringe

B.            Tuberculin syringe

C.            Hypodermic syringes

D.            A closed injection system

Q.28)     When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.

A.            refrigerate it for further use

B.            pour it back in the bottle

C.            discard it

D.            incubate it

Q.29)     When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.

A.            date it

B.            store it

C.            freeze it

D.            color it

Q.30)     The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?

A.            0.5 cc

B.            1.0 cc

C.            1.5 cc

D.            0.25 cc

Q.31)     A drug that causes urination is called a __________.

A.            diuretic

B.            hypertensive

C.            gestational drug

D.            narcotic

Q.32)     A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.

A.            antitussive

B.            antiemetic

C.            antiseptic

D.            antitoxin

Q.33)     A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.

A.            antipyretic

B.            antidote

C.            antiemetic

D.            analgesic

Q.34)     A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.

A.            vasodilator

B.            vasoconstrictor

C.            bronchodilator

D.            dilatemetic

Q.35)     A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

A.            suppressant

B.            decongestant

C.            antihistamine

D.            inebronchodilator

Q.36)     A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.

A.            miotic

B.            diuretic

C.            cytotoxin

D.            expectorant

Q.37)     A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________.

A.            solution

B.            emulsion

C.            elixir

D.            tincture

Q.38)     Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

A.            Narcotic overdose

B.            Inflammation

C.            Angina pectoris

D.            Anxiety

Q.39)     Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.

A.            inflammation

B.            appetite

C.            swelling

D.            excretion of urine

Q.40)     Schedule I drugs include __________.

A.            miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

B.            substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

C.            minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

D.            no correct answer

Q.41)     A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.

A.            transdermal system

B.            reservoir system

C.            ointment system

D.            epidermis system

Illustration #1

Q.42)     Refer to illustration #1 and identify number 10.

A.            Superior Vena Cava

B.            Aorta

C.            Right atrium

D.            Pulmonary vein

Q.43)     Refer to illustration #1 and identify number 5.

A.            Inferior vena cava

B.            Superior vena cava

C.            Right atrium

D.            Right ventricle

Q.44)     A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.

A.            Cystitis

B.            urethral stricture

C.            chronic renal failure

D.            pyelonephritis

Q.45)     A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called __________.

A.            high blood pressure

B.            type 1 diabetes

C.            pancreatitis

D.            type 2 diabetes

Q.46)     The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called __________.

A.            enema

B.            colostomy

C.            constipation

D.            peristalsis

Q.47)     The prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum is called __________.

A.            peristalsis

B.            anal incontinence

C.            fecal impaction

D.            feces

Q.48)     The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.

A.            flatus

B.            diarrhea

C.            peristalsis

D.            blockage

Illustration #2

Q.49)     Refer to Illustration #2 and identify the number 9.

A.            Nasal

B.            Zygomatic

C.            Temporal

D.            Radius

Q.50)     Refer to Illustration #2 and identify the number 4.

A.            Clavicle

B.            Sternum

C.            Scapula

D.            Ilium

Q.51)     A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a __________.

A.            non-pathogen

B.            spore

C.            flora

D.            pathogen

Q.52)     The most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw is __________.

A.            selecting the correct needle gauge

B.            using 70% alcohol prep pads

C.            identifying the patient

D.            using the correct tourniquet

Q.53)     Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing?

A.            Both venipuncture and microsampling involve skill.

B.            It doesn’t really matter which direction you lancet a finger.

C.            Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect.

D.            “Getting blood” is not the only goal of good blood drawing.

Q.54)     To determine the size of the needle, remember that the higher the gauge number the __________ needle bore.

A.            longer

B.            smaller

C.            larger

D.            shorter

Q.55)     A centrifuge works by __________.

A.            freezing blood specimens

B.            heating blood specimens

C.            incubating blood at body temp

D.            separating cells and serum

Q.56)     A tourniquet should be on the patient’s arm no longer than __________.

A.            1 minute

B.            2 minutes

C.            three minutes

D.            four minutes

Q.57)     To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and __________.

A.            work in a circle from the center to the periphery

B.            wipe carefully back and forth

C.            cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds

D.            use a lifting motion to move away from the skin

Q.58)     On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the __________.

A.            start

B.            amplitude

C.            gain

D.            b and c

Q.59)     Conversion of dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called __________.

A.            defribrillation

B.            shock treatment

C.            v tach

D.            scintillation

Q.60)     The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is __________.

A.            amplitude

B.            ground electrode

C.            direction or shape

D.            polarization

Q.61)     A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the __________.

A.            R wave

B.            T wave

C.            Q wave

D.            S wave

Q.62)     A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called __________.

A.            uniform

B.            malignant

C.            fused

D.            bigeminy

Q.63)     When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should __________ the first drop.

A.            collect

B.            use

C.            wipe away

D.            wash off

Q.64)     When performing any CLIA waived test it is important to do which one of the following?

A.            Keep all CLIA waived tests refrigerated.

B.            Discard quality control kits immediately upon opening the box.

C.            Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter.

D.            All answers are correct

Q.65)     An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the __________ required for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.

A.            time

B.            route

C.            muscles

D.            heart structures

Q.66)     When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading, it is called __________.

A.            irregular with a pattern

B.            absolutely regular

C.            essentially regular

D.            totally irregular

Q.67)     When applying leads, apply the V1 lead __________.

A.            directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

B.            on the fourth intercostal space right sternal border

C.            lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

D.            on the fifth intercostal space midclavicular line

Q.68)     When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as a(n) __________.

A.            patent ductus arteriosus

B.            arrhythmia

C.            aneurysm

D.            embolism

Q.69)     Oxygen can be administered to the patient by way of a __________.

A.            catheter

B.            cannula

C.            tent

D.            all answers are correct

Q.70)     How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection?

A.            At body temperature

B.            In a refrigerator

C.            At room temperature

D.            In a freezer

Q.71)     A positive urine dipstick test for albumin indicates the patient has __________ in his/her urine.

A.            glucose

B.            white blood cells

C.            protein

D.            ketones

Q.72)     Which urine dipstick test detects acetone in the urine?

A.            Glucose

B.            Ketones

C.            Protein

D.            pH

Q.73)     Which of the following stains classify bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative?

A.            PAP

B.            Gram

C.            Hematoxylin

D.            Wright’s

Q.74)     Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture?

A.            Back of the throat and tonsillar area

B.            Nasopharynx and epiglottis

C.            Cheeks and tongue

D.            Gums and tongue

Q.75)     A drug that helps to decrease appetite is called an __________.

A.            appetite modifier

B.            appetite stimulant

C.            anitspasmodic

D.            appetite suppressant

NCCT Practice Test C

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Open in Word

 

Q.1)       When the internal environment of the body is functioning properly, a condition of ________ exits.

A.            Hemorrhage

B.            dysfunction

C.            homeostasis

D.            euphoria

Q.2)       Schedule V drugs include

A.            substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

B.            miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drug

C.            minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

D.            various narcotics such as opium

Q.3)       digoxin is used for

A.            excretion of urine

B.            anxiety

C.            cardiac problems

D.            suppress swelling

Q.4)       escape of fluid into the pleural cavity is called

A.            pneumonia

B.            pulmonary edema

C.            plural effusion

D.            emphysema

Q.5)       an injection where the skin is pulled laterally 1 1/2 inches away from the injection site, is called ______.

A.            intravenous

B.            Z track

C.            EZ track

D.            intramuscular

Q.6)       conduct, courtesy, and manners customary in the medical profession are called _______.

A.            ethics

B.            medical etiquette

C.            moral therapy

D.            precocity

Q.7)       a kind of liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) ______.

A.            solution

B.            emulsion

C.            elixir

D.            tinctures

Q.8)       the insurance program that covers needy and low income people is ______.

A.            Medicaid

B.            Medicare

C.            tri-care

D.            blue cross/blue shield

Q.9)       failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person’s property is ___________ .

A.            malpractice

B.           defamation

C.           slander

D.           negligence

Q.10)    the _______ name of a drug is its official name

A.           trade or brand

B.           chemical

C.           generic

D.           organic

Q.11)    inflammation of the peritoneal cavity is

A.           peritoneal cavitis

B.           hernia

C.           peritonitis

D.           colitis

Q.12)    which of the following is used to administer an intradermal injection ?

A.           insulin syringe

B.           tuberculin syringe

C.           hypodermic syringe

D.           tubex closed injection system

Q.13)    ECG term vector refers to _____.

A.           space

B.           stillness

C.           flatness

D.           force

Q.14)    the Tri-care fiscal year is from

A.           October 1 – September 31

B.           Jan. 1 – dec. 31

C.           July 1 – June 31

D.           cot 1 – seep 1

Q.15)    a glass container holding medication in either Iiquid or powder form is called a(n) ____________.

A.           multi-dose vial

B.           capsule

C.           prefilled syringe

D.           ampule

Q.16)    the medical term for turning downward is

A.           adduction

B.           external rotation

C.           supination

D.           pronation

Q.17)    fluid may be held in the body tissues and make them swell, this is called ____.

A.           inflammation

B.           dysmorphia

C.           edema

D.           hydromorphia

Q.18)    an organization that offers insurance against losses in exchange for a premium is called ___.

A.           health maintenance organization

B.           rider

C.           member physician

D.           bank

Q.19)    a date on a bottle of medication that assures its potency is _____.

A.           ingredient date

B.           sale date

C.           expiration date

D.           manufactures date

Q.20)    when the patient kneels, and places his/her head and chest on the table, with the top elevated, it is called _______.

A.           lithotomy position

B.           knee-chest position

C.           proctal position

D.           prone position

Q.21)    the American Medical Association developed a reference procedural code book using a numerical system for procedures, and this is called _______.

A.           insurance claim manual

B.           reference manual

C.           manual for current procedures

D.           current procedural terminology

Q.22)    a predetermined amount that the insured must pay each year before the insurance company will pay for an illness of injury is called__________.

A.           deductible

B.           co-payment fee

C.           extended benefits

D.           application fee

Q.23)    the medical term for tube feeding is _______.

A.           IV

B.           esophageal introduction

C.           gavage

D.           IVN

Q.24)    a clean smooth cut cause by a sharp cutting instrument is called ___________.

A.           laceration

B.           puncture

C.           incision

D.           abrasion

Q.25)    to determine if the heart rhythm is regular or irregular, the distance between each P wave and then each _________ is measured

A.           T

B.           Q

C.           R

D.           U

Q.26)    a drug that produces sleep is called a(n)

A.           hypnotic

B.           placebo

C.           diaphoretic

D.           antispasmodic

Q.27)    a drug used to increase the secretions and mucus from the bronchial tubes is called ____.

A.           antitussive

B.           decongestant

C.           vasodilator

D.           expectorant

Q.28)    schedule IV drugs include

A.           substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

B.           includes various narcotics such as opium

C.           minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

D.           none of the answers

Q.29)    a check written to the doctor by someone other than the patient, is called a _________.

A.           Third party check

B.           delayed check

C.           referred check

D.           cashiers

Q.30)    the lateral movement of the limbs away from the median plane of the body is called

A.           extension

B.           supination

C.           internal rotation

D.           abduction

Q.31)    Thorazine is used to __________.

A.           cause excretion of urine

B.           induce vomiting

C.           reduce mental tension anxiety

D.           suppress swelling and shock

Q.32)    the first loop of the small intestine is called the _______.

A.           jejunum

B.           duodenum

C.           transverse colon

D.           deuterium

Q.33)    what is the proper placement of an agar plate in the incubator

A.           right side up

B.           inverted

C.           inside out

D.           on the side

Q.34)    insulin syringes are collaborated in

A.           cubic centimeters

B.           minums

C.           mm

D.           units

Q.35)    the tube used to collect a blood sample for a complete blood count (CBC) is ____________.

A.           green top, lithium heparin additive

B.           blue top, sodium citrate additive

C.           lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive

D.           red top, no additive

Q.36)    why are culture tests used in autoclaving?

A.           to determine if the autoclave has too much pressure

B.           to determine if any bacteria are developing in the procedure

C.           to determine if the autoclave has any leakage

D.           to determine the effectiveness of the sterilization procedure

Q.37)    a person not infected by but unconsciously transporting harmful bacteria is called ______.

A.           carrier

B.           infectious

C.           immune

D.           pre-infected

Q.38)    a 12-month period that begins with the same pre-determined date each year and is selected for financial purposes is call a(n)__________.

A.           financial year

B.           fiduciary year

C.           accounting year

D.           fiscal year

Q.39)    the position of a patient for a gynecological examination is ______.

A.           lithotomy

B.           horizontal recumbent

C.           prone

D.           sims

Q.40)    removal of synovial fluid is called

A.           paracentesis

B.           arthrography

C.           arthrocentesis

D.           myelocyte

Q.41)    an internal software language used to control computer hardware is called ______.

A.           shareware

B.           K2y

C.           operating system

D.           OS2

Q.42)    the study of the function of cells is called _____.

A.           anatomy

B.           cytology

C.           histology

D.           physiology

Q.43)    amniocentesis allows physicians to ______.

A.           monitor irregularities of the heart

B.           remove duodenal ulcers

C.           perform genetic tests before birth

D.           check for gall stones

Q.44)     a wound in which the outer layers of the skin are scraped off is called ______.

A.           abrasion

B.           laceration

C.           puncture

D.           incision

Q.45)    an X-ray examination of the gall bladder following oral administration of a contrast medium is called __________.

A.           gastroscopy

B.           ultrasound

C.           cholecystography

D.           photocopy

Q.46)    inflammation of the eyelid is called

A.           diplopia

B.           dysmetropsia

C.           myopiatits

D.           blepharitis

Q.47)    a test for non-invasive cardiac evaluation undertaken with an ECG, under controlled exercise stress condition is called

A.           cardiac cycle test

B.           sedentary test

C.           treadmill test

D.           holter-monitor test

Q.48)    concerning computers, a duplicate file to protect information is called a ___________.

A.           backup

B.           default

C.           matrix

D.           batch

Q.49)    a number issued by the internal revenue service to medical groups or solo practice for income tax is called ____________.

A.           federal tax identification number

B.           insurance id number

C.           social security number

D.           state tax number

Q.50)    the period of time after the beginning of an insurance policy for which no benefits are payable, is called ________.

A.           extension period

B.           elimination period

C.           time limit

D.           grace period

Q.51)    the HgBA1c test has made daily self-glucose monitoring unnecessary.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.52)    the tuberculin test is a type of intradermal skin test that is read in 48 to 72 hours.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.53)    female patients should be taught to wipe and cleanse the perinea from back to front.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.54)    a hollter monitor is an ECG device that includes a small cassette recorder, allowing the reading to be taken over a period of time.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.55)    infants need seven well-baby examinations during their first year, at 2 weeks, 1 month, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, and 1 year.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.56)    puberty is the period of adolescence during which a person begins to develop sexual traits.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.57)    menstrual cycles are prompted by changes in the testosterone levels.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.58)    pregnancy test are used to measure human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), which is produced during pregnancy.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.59)    normal vision is referred to as 20/40.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.60)    when testing distance vision, the first number is always 20 ft., because the patient stands 20 ft. away from the chart.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.61)    to use a physical chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores is to ________

A.           eradicate

B.           toxify

C.           sterilize

D.           acid wash

Q.62)    which of the following is usually used to take a pulse ?

A.           apical pulse

B.           radial pulse

C.           brachial pulse

D.           apical-radial pulse

Q.63)    the most common RH antigen is

A.           B

B.           E

C.           C

D.           D

Q.64)    an incompatibility of the Rh blood group between an Rh positive fetus and an Rh negative mother can result in

A.           HDN

B.           SLE

C.           IDDM

D.           CRP

Q.65)    the blood type known as the universal donor is

A.           AB positive

B.           AB negative

C.           O positive

D.           O negative

Q.66)    test for blood types are examples of

A.           precipitation

B.           agglutination reactions

C.           ELISA

D.           radio assay

Q.67)    Strep throat, and less commonly, rheumatic fever are caused by

A.           Lyme disease

B.           chlamydia

C.           group B strep

D.           group A strep

Q.68)    most urinary tract infections (UTI) are

A.           gram positive

B.           gram negative

C.           staph organisms

D.           strep organisms

Q.69)    aa bacteria that is spherical, round or ovoid is a

A.           vibrio

B.           coccus

C.           spirillum

D.           bacillus

Q.70)    a rod shaped bacteria is classified as a

A.           bacillus

B.           spirillum

C.           coccus

D.           vibrio

Q.71)    how do streptococci grow?

A.           in chains

B.           in pairs

C.           in grape-like clusters

D.           spirals

Q.72)    beneficial bacteria found in that create a barrier against pathogens are called

A.           antigens

B.           normal flora

C.           immunity

D.           virulence

Q.73)    the stains used in gram staining are:

A.           crystal violet

B.           iodine

C.           alcohol

D.           saphrinie

E.           lithium

F.           red food coloring

Q.74)    aerosols are administered in this way

A.           parenteral administration

B.           rectal administration

C.           inhalation

D.           topical

Q.75)    drugs that have been mixed with liquids but are not dissolved are called

A.           mixtures or suspensions

B.           tinctures

C.           elixirs

D.           emulsions

Q.76)    parenteral route include all of the following except:

A.           transcutaneous systems

B.           rectal suppositories

C.           sublingual tablets

D.           nebulizer inhalation

Q.77)    subcutaneous injections are administered in all of the following sites except

A.           upper, outer arm

B.           front of thigh

C.           abdomen

D.           buttocks

Q.78)    a deficiency of which vitamin in the B-complex group during pregnancy could cause birth defects such as spina bifida?

A.           folic acid

B.           thiamine

C.           pyridoxine

D.           riboflavin

Q.79)    the time established for filing law suits is

A.           civil law

B.           statute of limitations

C.           contract

D.           none of the answers

Q.80)    a patient’s failure to act prudently and reasonably, or doing that which a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances is called

A.           breach of duty

B.           assumption of risk

C.           contributory negligence

D.           none of the answers

Q.81)    consent to treatment based on a full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of that treatment is called

A.           contributory negligence

B.           fraud

C.           assumption of risk

D.           prominent cause

Q.82)    failure to achieve and agree upon result, even when the highest degree of skill has been used is called

A.           breach of contract

B.           negligence

C.           proximate cause

D.           ethics

Q.83)    a violation of a person’s right not to have his/her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of/made public without giving consent is

A.           false imprisonment

B.           malpractice

C.           invasion of privacy

D.           statute

Q.84)    which of these generally results from an act of carelessness, without intent to harm

A.           breach of confidentiality

B.           malpractice

C.           slander

D.           man slaughter

Q.85)    the word element -ectomy means

A.           air

B.           outer, on the outside

C.           surgical removal

D.           none of the answers

Q.86)    which condition is the death of bone tissue cause by an insufficient blood supply, infection, malignancy, or trauma

A.           osteoclasis

B.           osteolysis

C.           osteonecrosis

D.           osteosarcoma

Q.87)    which term describes the rupture of a muscle

A.           hernia

B.           mycelia

C.           myorrhaphy

D.           myorrhexis

Q.88)    which condition is an inflammation of the tissue surrounding bone

A.           perichondritis

B.           peridontitis

C.           periostitis

D.           peritonitis

Q.89)    which medication causes blood vessels to become narrower

A.           anticoagulant

B.           thrombolytic

C.           vasoconstrictor

D.           vasodilator

Q.90)    the process of building up of body cells and substances from nutrients is known as

A.           anabolism

B.           catabolism

C.           digestion

D.           metabolism

Q.91)    which condition is the paralysis of all four extremities

A.           hemiparesis

B.           hemiplegia

C.           myoparesis

D.           quadriplegia

Q.92)    which procedure is commonly known as a facelift

A.           dermatoplasty

B.           lumpectomy

C.           rhytidectomy

D.           sclera therapy

Q.93)    which condition is an inflammation of the tympanic membrane

A.           eustachitis

B.           myringitis

C.           ladyrinthitis

D.           ototis

Q.94)    which condition is also commonly known as far sightedness

A.           extropia

B.           hyperopia

C.           myopia

D.           nyctalopia

Q.95)    which of the following is the lack of development of an organ or tissue

A.           anaplasia

B.           aplasia

C.           dysplasia

D.           hyperplasia

Q.96)    gastrectomy:

A.           gastric resection

B.           intestinal incision

C.           tumor of the stomach

D.           incision of the stomach

E.           resection of the intestine

Q.97)    pertaining to the brain

A.           cerebral

B.           cephalic

C.           renal

D.           cardiac

E.           neural

Q.98)    which suffix means a surgical creation of an artificial opening

A.           -ectomy

B.           -otomy

C.           -ostomy

D.           -plasty

Q.99)    which combining form means fever

A.           py/o

B.           pyel/o

C.           pyelor/o

D.           pyr/o

Q.100) the abbreviation for water

A.           aq

B.           water

C.           wa

D.           aw

Q.101) the locations where air enters the respiratory tract is called

A.           larynx

B.           lungs

C.           nasal cavity

D.           bronchi

Q.102) the sum of the chemical reactions in a cell is known as

A.           homeostasis

B.           metabolism

C.           anabolism

D.           catabolism

Q.103) the section portion of the small intestine is called the

A.           ducalvant

B.           sigmoid

C.           duodenum

D.           jejunum

Q.104) the female organ that corresponds to the male penis is the

A.           vulva

B.           ovaries

C.           clitoris

D.           uterus

Q.105) a plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior

A.           coronal plane

B.           sagittal plane

C.           transverse plane

D.           midline plane

Q.106) visual perception is located in the _______ lobe

A.           frontal

B.           temporal

C.           parental

D.           occipital

Q.107) an instrument used to test reflexes is called the

A.           flexion hammer

B.           tuning fork

C.           percussion hammer

D.           pronation hammer

Q.108) policies that do not provide benefits for conditions that were treated before the policy was issued are called

A.           pre-determined

B.           pre-existing

C.           pre-certification

D.           pre-authorized

Q.109) the employees withholding exemption certificate form number is

A.           W-4

B.           W-2

C.           1040

D.           Social security number

Q.110) when administering an ultrasound treatment the coupling agent should be

A.           heated to 110 degrees

B.           apply at room temperature

C.           apply with a damp towel

D.           kept on the ultra sound machine

Q.111) instructions to an insurance company about whom and where to make payment is called

A.           beneficial assignment

B.           assignment of benefits

C.           notice of payment

D.           payment contract

Q.112) the computer, printer, disk drive, and monitors are referred to as

A.           visual display equipment

B.           processing equipment

C.           hardware

D.           assets

Q.113) a drug used to control bleeding , a blood coagulant is called a(n)

A.           hemostatic

B.           vasodilator

C.           steroid

D.           opiate

Q.114) benefits in a form of cash payments rather than service are called

A.           indemnity

B.           hospital benefits

C.           catastrophic benefits

D.           cash advances

Q.115) a requirement under a health care policy dictates that the insured be responsible for the percentage of covered services. this is called

A.           coinsurance

B.           per-define policy

C.           comprehensive

D.           in percent policy

Q.116) payment for hospital charges incurred by an insured person because of injury or illness is called

A.           hospital benefits

B.           catastrophic health benefits

C.           extra health benefits

D.           none of the answers

Q.117) in banking, a deposit or addition to a bank account is called a ______.

A.           debit

B.           credit

C.           checking account

D.           note

Q.118) an attachment to a policy excluding certain illnesses or disabilities that would otherwise be covered is called

A.           optionally renewable

B.           dread disease rider

C.           pre policy rider

D.           waiver

Q.119) as part of the office book keeping procedures, the physicians bank statement should be reconciled with the ________

A.           daily ledger

B.           business ledger

C.           personal ledger

D.           check book

Q.120) E/M codes are located in the _____ manuals

A.           CPT

B.           ICD-9-CM

C.           ICD-10-CM

D.           HCPC

Q.121) A 1:10 solutions of bleach and water is an effective disinfectant.

A.           True

B.           False

Q.122) a bleach and water solution once mixed remains effective for 1 week

A.           True

B.           False

Q.123) _____ testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who may be concerned thy have been infected with HIV through an occupation exposure.

A.           serological

B.           blood

C.           immediate

D.           virologic

Q.124) universal precautions is __________

A.           an organization to promote infection control

B.           an approach to infection control

C.           EPA guidelines

D.           world health organization guidelines

Q.125) tapping the patient with fingers and listening to the sounds produced is called

A.           percussion

B.           audition

C.           additive

D.           propitiation

Q.126) an instrument used to open or distend a body orifice is called

A.           tenaculum

B.           sound

C.           curette

D.           speculum

Q.127) ___________ is the study of words and their relationship to other words in a sentence

A.           etiquette

B.           forum

C.           punctuation

D.           grammar

Q.128) a person who represents either party of an insurance claim is the

A.           doctor

B.           adjuster

C.           provider

D.           subscriber

Q.129) a drug used to prevent blood from clotting is called a(n)

A.           anticoagulant

B.           anticholinergic

C.           antidote

D.           placebo

Q.130) one of the vital functions of long bones is the formation of

A.           white blood cells

B.           red blood cells

C.           calcium

D.           cellulite

Answer Key

  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. C
  5. B
  6. B
  7. B
  8. A
  9. D
  10. C
  11. A
  12. C
  13. D
  14. A
  15. D
  16. D
  17. C
  18. B
  19. C
  20. B
  21. D
  22. A
  23. C
  24. C
  25. C
  26. A
  27. D
  28. D
  29. A
  30. D
  31. C
  32. B
  33. B
  34. C
  35. C
  36. D
  37. A
  38. D
  39. A
  40. C
  41. C
  42. B
  43. C
  44. A
  45. A
  46. D
  47. C
  48. A
  49. A
  50. B
  51. B
  52. A
  53. B

More answers coming!

Law and Ethics Practice Test

Printable Version-Click Here

 

  1. Right and wrong conduct is known as  ________.
    1. Empathy
    2. Criminal law
    3. Ethics
    4. Licensure
  2. The most common type of medical tort liability is ________.
    1. Negligence
    2. Breach of contract
    3. Breach of confidence
    4. Fraud and deceit
  3. A person being sued is called the ________.
    1. Plaintiff
    2. Tort
    3. Defendant
    4. Criminal law
  4. The withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is  ________.
    1. Contract
    2. Reasonable care
    3. Negligence
    4. Abandonment
  5. An unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another is ________.
    1. Litigation
    2. Assault
    3. Crime
    4. Libel
  6. The health worker is protected by law if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonably compared with fellow workers.  This is called ________.
    1. Respondeat superior
    2. Reasonable care
    3. Duty of care
    4. Statute
  7. Negligence by a professional person is called ________.
    1. Invasion of privacy
    2. Slander
    3. Malpractice
    4. Tort
  8. An act that violates criminal law is called ________.
    1. Defamation
    2. Crime
    3. Libel
    4. Slander
  9. The breaking of a law promise, or duty is called ________.
    1. Statute
    2. Breach
    3. Consent
    4. Incompetent
  10. The ability to see things from another person’s point of view is _________.
    1. Consent
    2. Respoindat superior
    3. Empathy
    4. Ethics
  11. The time established for filing law suits is ________.
    1. Civil law
    2. Statute of limitations
    3. Contract
    4. No correct answer
  12. A writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony is a(n) ________.
    1. Habeus corpus
    2. Tort of appearance
    3. Subpoena
    4. Tort et a travers
  13. A wrong committed against another person or the person’s property is a ________.
    1. Defamation
    2. Libel
    3. Tort
    4. Plaintiff
  14. Holding or detaining a person against his will is ________.
    1. False imprisonment
    2. Crime
    3. Incompetent
    4. Duty of care
  15. A violation of a person’s right not to have his or her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of made public without giving consent is ________.
    1. False imprisonment
    2. Malpractice
    3. Invasion of privacy
    4. Statute
  16. A major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is ________.
    1. Licensure
    2. Civil law
    3. Tort
    4. Felony
  17. One who institutes a lawsuit is ________.
    1. Defendant
    2. Plaintiff
    3. Litigation
    4. Respondeat superior
  18. A legal statement of how an individual’s property is to be distributed after death is ________.
    1. Contract
    2. tort
    3. will
    4. judgment
  19. Information given by a patient to medical personnel with cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is ________.
    1. Duty of care
    2. Respondeat superior
    3. Judgment
    4. Privileged communication
  20. A rule of conduct made by a government body is ________.
    1. Tort
    2. Law
    3. Will
    4. Contract
  21. Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or a person’s property is ________.
    1. Malpractice
    2. Negligence
    3. Slander
    4. Defamation
  22. Permission granted by a person voluntarily and in his right mind is ________.
    1. Consent
    2. Litigation
    3. Breach
    4. Duty of care
  23. Injuring the name and reputation of another person by making false statements to a third person is ________.
    1. Empathy
    2. Negligence
    3. Defamation
    4. Ethics
  24. An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is ________.
    1. Contract
    2. Litigation
    3. Statute
    4. Felony
  25. Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as ________.
    1. Breach of duty
    2. Abandonment
    3. Competence
    4. Incompetence
  26. The final decision of a court in an action or suit is ________.
    1. Consent
    2. Contract
    3. Judgment
    4. Licensure
  27. Responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee is ________.
    1. Libel
    2. Malpractice
    3. Respondeat superior
    4. Civil law
  28. A Latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is _________.
    1. Res gestae
    2. Non compos mentis
    3. Res judicata
    4. Tecum
  29. A person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent is called a(n) ________.
    1. Emancipated minor
    2. Plaintiff
    3. Defendant
    4. Tort
  30. An impartial panel established to listen to and investigate patient’s complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called a ________ committee.
    1. Medical ethics
    2. Medical grievance
    3. Civil law
    4. No correct answer
  31. Latin for “things done; deeds”– the facts and circumstances attendant to the act in question would be called ________.
    1. Res gestae
    2. Loum tenems
    3. Tecum
    4. No correct answer
  32. Testimony of a witness under oath and written down before trial for possible use when the case comes to trial is ________.
    1. Deposition
    2. Citation
    3. Warrant
    4. Expert testimony
  33. A statute that enforces private right and liabilities, as differentiated from criminal law is called a ________.
    1. statute of limitations
    2. civil law
    3. medical arbitration
    4. no correct answer
  34. Violation or omission of a legal or moral duty is called ________.
    1. Negligence
    2. Breach of duty
    3. Defamation
    4. Malpractice
  35. A deliberate physical attack upon a person is called ________.
    1. Assault
    2. Battery
    3. Slander
    4. Contributory negligence
  36. Latin for “he who acts through another acts for himself” is called ________.
    1. Res gestae
    2. Qui facit per alium facit per se
    3. Locum tenems
    4. No correct answer
  37. The branch of study of moral issues, questions, and problems arising in the practice of medicine and in biomedical research is called ________.
    1. Bioethics
    2. Litigation
    3. Philosophy
    4. Privileged communication
  38. A statement given concerning some scientific, technical, or professional matter by an expert, such as a physician is called ________.
    1. Litigation
    2. Expert testimony
    3. Medical arbitration
    4. Burden of proof
  39. A patient’s failure to act prudently and reasonable, or doing that which a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances is called ________.
    1. Breach of duty
    2. Assumption of risk
    3. Contributory negligence
    4. No correct answer
  40. Consent to treatment based on a full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of that treatment I called ________.
    1. Contributory negligence
    2. Fraud
    3. Assumption of risk
    4. Proximate cause
  41. Conduct, courtesy, and manners that are customarily used in a medical office by medical professionals are known as ________.
    1. Ethics
    2. Moral therapy
    3. Precocity
    4. Medical etiquette
  42. An intentional perversion of truth for the purpose of inducing another in reliance upon it to part with some valuable thing belonging to him or to surrender a legal right is called ________.
    1. Fraud
    2. Negligence
    3. Assumption of risk
    4. Contributory negligence
  43. To interrupt or discontinue a suit temporarily with the intention of resumption at a later date, or to ask for a continuance is called a ________.
    1. Suspension
    2. Judgment
    3. Civil law
    4. Deposition
  44. Latin for “things decided”—that is, a matter already decided by judicial authority is called ________.
    1. Res judicata
    2. Respondeat superior
    3. Locum tenems
    4. No correct answer
  45. That which in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any new independent cause, produces an event, and without which the injury would not have occurred is called ________.
    1. Negligence
    2. Proximate cause
    3. Assumption of risk
    4. Assault
  46. The presumption or inference of negligence when an accident is otherwise unable to be explained in terms of ordinary and  known experience is called _________.
    1. Res judicata
    2. Res ipsa loquitur
    3. Locum tenems
    4. Res gestae
  47. Failure to achieve an agreed upon result, even when the highest degree of skill has been used, is called ________.
    1. Breach of contract
    2. Negligence
    3. Proximate cause
    4. Ethics
  48. What license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe or administer controlled substances?
    1. Lawyers
    2. Narcotic
    3. Business
    4. Occupational
  49. Unauthorized disclosure of information regarding any patient to a third party may result in ________.
    1. Civil law liability
    2. Medical liability
    3. Invasion of privacy
    4. Defamation of character
  50. Medical research is often published in medical journals that are evaluated by members of the medical community through a process known as ________.
    1. Professional review
    2. Hospital review
    3. Peer review
    4. Promethium review
  51. Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as ________.
    1. Procedure
    2. Admissions
    3. Cost
    4. Quality
  52. A fraudulent signature is called ________.
    1. Endorsement
    2. Forgery
    3. Fraud
    4. Forbearance
  53. ________ are defined as what are right and wrong.
    1. Rules
    2. Ethics
    3. Laws
    4. Guidelines
  54. Which of the following might involve a decision based upon bioethics?
    1. Reporting physical, emotional or mental abuse
    2. Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent
    3. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
    4. Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient
  55. A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which of the following?
    1. Gunshot wound
    2. Anorexia
    3. Drug addiction
    4. Pregnancy
  56. It is _________ to deny treatment to an HIV infected patient.
    1. Illegal
    2. Moral
    3. Unethical
    4. Ethical
  57. ________ is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information.
    1. OSHA
    2. CLIA
    3. CMS
    4. HIPAA
  58. In the health care field the acronym HIPAA stands for ________.
    1. Health Information Adjustment Association
    2. History Inquiry of Professional Assertive Assistance
    3. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
    4. Health Inquiry for Permission of Accountability Association
  59. The statement “A physician shall respect the law” is a part of the ________
    1. AAA Code of Ethics
    2. AMA Code of Principles
    3. Preamble to the constitution of the United States
    4. AMA Code of Ethics
  60. Which of these generally results from an act of carelessness, without intent to harm?
    1. Breach of confidentiality
    2. Malpractice
    3. Slander
    4. Manslaughter

 

Answer Key

  1. C
  2. A
  3. C
  4. D
  5. B
  6. B
  7. C
  8. B
  9. B
  10. C
  11. B
  12. C
  13. C
  14. A
  15. C
  16. D
  17. B
  18. C
  19. D
  20. B
  21. B
  22. A
  23. C
  24. A
  25. D
  26. C
  27. C
  28. B
  29. A
  30. B
  31. A
  32. A
  33. B
  34. B
  35. B
  36. B
  37. A
  38. B
  39. C
  40. C
  41. D
  42. A
  43. A
  44. A
  45. B
  46. B
  47. A
  48. B
  49. C
  50. C
  51. B
  52. B
  53. B
  54. C
  55. A
  56. C
  57. D
  58. C
  59. D
  60. D

 

General Testing Skills Quiz

Taking tests is not only something you should prepare for, but something you can actually be good at, almost regardless of the material.  Of course you can’t expect to ace a test you know nothing about, but there are tactics for test taking that can help you choose the most likely answer.  This means you aren’t just guessing when you don’t know the answer, but you are picking an answer that is more likely than just a guess to be the right answer.  These rules ONLY apply when you don’t know the answer at all.  No matter how much you study for the NCCT or any other exam, you are likely to get at least a few questions that you are clueless about.  If you follow these rule, you will at least increase your chances of getting the right answer even if you don’t know it:

When you aren’t sure of a correct answer AND HAVE TO GUESS……

1. Choose the most general answer when other choices are specific.

2. Choose the longest answer when others are much shorter.

3. Choose the answer with a middle value when other answers are higher or lower.

4. Choose neither of the similar answers.

5. Choose one of two opposite answers.

6. Choose the answer that agrees grammatically. For ex: a, and an = singular, are = plural.

7. Choose the answer most synonymous with key words in the question or statement.

8. Count the number of blanks in fill-in questions or statements.

9. Choose from among familiar answers. Avoid unknown options.

10. Choose the most logical answer to you.

11. Avoid answers with absolutes in them. Examples are always, never, every, none, all, only.)

Now that you know the rules, try to apply them to the following test which includes only one answer you MIGHT know (on A&P).  The rest are likely things you have never heard of, but you should be able to get 100%, or at least close to it, by applying the above rules.  Take the test on your own and then at the end check out the answers and the explanation at the end to see how you did and why.

Print the test

1. The word tale is synonymous with:

A. lyric

B. fable

C. legend

D. both B and C are correct

E. none of the above is correct

 

2. Bendaline’s opera “The Three Bells” focuses on

A. marital problems

B. domestic strife

C. the problem of aging

D. conflict between an old man and his wife

 

3. The government department responsible for judicial affairs of government is

A. the U.S. Department of Justice

B. the U.S. Department of Foreign Services

C. the U.S. Department of Agriculture

D. the U.S. Department of Interior

 

4. Which is an example of an instrument that measures the level of self-esteem?

A. the Strong-Campbell Vocational Interest Blank

B. the Kidder Personal Preference Inventory

C. the Vassey Adult Intelligence Scale

D. the Tennessee Self-Concept Scale

 

5. The economic policy practiced by both Britain and France during the seventeenth century that

restricted trade by the colonies to the mother country was:

A. salutory neglect

B. Feudalism

C. socialism

D. capitalism

E. mercantilism

 

6. Which of the following is typically or most often, expressed by those organizational members

classified as “professional” employees?

A. A high degree of antagonism towards management

B. A perception that personal goals conflict with goals of management, or organization as a whole

C. Frustration at being grossly unpaid

 

7. All of these statements about mitosis are true except it

A. is a process of nuclear cell division

B. it has 4 phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

C. is the type of cell division common only to germ cells

D. is a vital process of growth and development

 

8. At the present time, there are relatively few women in positions of corporate management. One

reason is:

A. until 5 years ago, no women had completed a masters degree in business

B. research has proven that women do not possess any skills required for corporate leadership

C. women have no interest in pursuing management careers

D. there are a general lack of formal and informal training programs to develop women managers

 

9. The main reason early settlers did not assimilate the culture of the American Indians was

A. the American Indians had no culture

B. religious and ideological differences were too great

C. most early settlers were captured by Indians

D. the Indian fighting methods were too primitive

 

10. A salve made of jipsen weed is put on an inflamed area of the skin because jipsen

A. has a toxic effect

B. heals every kind of wound

C. has no effect on inflamed areas

 

11. Tenable means:

A. ridiculous

B. believable

C. ludicrous

D. absurd

 

12. Sagandorf’s conclusion regarding human learning is that

A. learning ability of individuals is definitely influenced by their physical condition.

B. either extreme tiredness or ill health can diminish one’s ability to learn.

C. learning is not affected by a learner’s physical condition.

D. all of the above

 

13. Z. T. Billingsley’s novel, Urban Living deals with:

A. migration to the countryside

B. the stresses associated with metropolitan living es

C. our natural resources

D. modern business techniqu

 

14. The gypsy butterfly is characterized by its ability to:

A. make rapid changes in coloration

B. stabilize in large colonies

C. confines itself to a relatively limited geographical area

D. differentiates scents

 

15. Fantasy and make-believe are pastimes that are:

A. experienced only by the very young

B. always indicates psychological instability

C. never demonstrated by intelligent adults

D. sometimes beneficial when moderate in dimension

 

16. The biological significance of the chambered nautilus is:

A. no other crustacean has ever propelled itself by jet blasts

B. it has inhabited only those sea depths man cannot reach

C. it is essentially unchanged by evolutionary processes

D. no living specimen has ever been found

 

17. The 17th century French biologist La Seur is credited with

A. discovering a cure for lung cancer

B. discovering a vaccine to prevent polio

C. disproving Darwin’s theory of evolution

D. hybridizing several flowering plants

 

18. The Roman philosopher Tuscus believed that

A. the fall of Rome was inevitable

B. nothing could be done to save the Roman Empire

C. man, properly aware of the impending fall, could prevent it

D. the of decay and decline of Roman rule was irreversible

 

19. The bill of the woodpecker robin is

A. blunted and short C. virtually nonexistent

B. sharp and long D. curved and small

 

20. Which of these statements related to Emily Dickinson is correct?

A. For a part of her life, she was a recluse.

B. She always wrote poetry dealing with melancholia

C. She never exhibited any talent for poetry other than free verse

D. She always dealt with the most trivial themes of existence in her poetry

 

Answer Key

1. d 6. b 11. b 16. c

2. c 7. c 12. c 17. d

3. a 8. d 13. b 18. c

4. d 9. b 14. a 19. b

5. e 10. d 15. d 20. a

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